AIBE 4 (IV) 2012 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 97 Questions Solved

Read this first

• Questions 98-100 are missing from the available copy of this paper.
• 7 published keys were corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 3 questions were withdrawn or given grace marks. Where one option is still right in law, it is shown as the answer.
• 6 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

CrPC / BNSS

Q1. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right-

• (1) By the police officer
• (2) By the Court
• (3) Both by the police officer and the Court. ✔
• (4) Either (1) or (2)

Answer: (3)

s. 436 CrPC (s. 478 BNSS) — in a bailable offence, bail is a right, and may be given by the officer in charge of the police station or by the court.

CrPC / BNSS

Q2. Which classification of offence under Criminal Procedure comes
Code?

• (1) Cognizable & non-cognizable
• (2) Bailable & non-bailable.
• (3) Summons cases & warrant cases
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

The Code classifies offences as cognizable/non- cognizable and bailable/non-bailable, and cases as summons/warrant cases.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Key corrected

Q3. Consumer Protection Act 1986 is predominantly based on UN General resolution with due negotiations in the:

• (1) UNCITRAL
• (2) UNCTAD
• (3) UNECOSOU ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

The 1986 Act gave effect to the UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection (GA Res. 39/248, 1985), drafted through negotiations in ECOSOC.

Note: The published key gives (4). The Guidelines’ drafting history runs through ECOSOC; the 1986 Act has since been replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

CrPC / BNSS

Q4. Non-cognizable offence has been defined-

• (1) Under Section 2 (a)
• (2) Under Section 2 (e)
• (3) Under Section 2 (f)
• (4) Under Section 2 (1) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(l) CrPC defines a non-cognizable offence (now in s. 2(1) BNSS).

CrPC / BNSS

Q5. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest under-

• (1) Sec. 56 of Cr.P.C.
• (2) Sec. 57 of Cr.P.C. ✔
• (3) Sec. 58 of Cr.P.C.
• (4) Sec. 59 of Cr.P.C.

Answer: (2)

s. 57 CrPC (s. 58 BNSS), read with Art. 22(2) — production before a Magistrate within 24 hours, excluding journey time.

IPC / BNS

Q6. A refused to answer questions put to a witness under section 161 of CrPC is an offence under-

• (1) Section 176 I.P.C.
• (2) Section 179 I.P.C. ✔
• (3) Section 187 I.P.C.
• (4) Neither (1) nor (2) nor (3)

Answer: (2)

s. 179 IPC (s. 214 BNS) punishes refusing to answer a public servant authorised to question.

Constitutional Law

Q7. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor- General of India?

• (1) 6 years
• (2) Up to 65 years of age
• (3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier ✔
• (4) Up to 62 years of age

Answer: (3)

A CAG holds office for six years or until 65, whichever is earlier (CAG (DPC) Act, 1971, s. 4).

CrPC / BNSS

Q8. The Investigating Officer during the investigation records
Statements of a witness under-

• (1) Sec.160 of CrPC
• (2) Sec. 162 of CrPC
• (3) Sec. 161 of CrPC ✔
• (4) Sec.164 of CrPC

Answer: (3)

s. 161 CrPC (s. 180 BNSS) — examination of witnesses by the police.

CrPC / BNSS

Q9. Complaint as provided under Section 2 (d) of Cr.P.C.—

• (1) Can be in writing only
• (2) Can be oral
• (3) Either in writing or oral ✔
• (4) Can be by gestures.

Answer: (3)

s. 2(d) CrPC — a complaint is an allegation made “orally or in writing” to a Magistrate.

Evidence / BSA

Q10. Which of the following is relevant fact under Evidence Act, 1872?

• (1) facts regarding motive ✔
• (2) facts regarding Statement without related conduct
• (3) facts regarding Statements clubbed with conduct
• (4) facts which make other relevant and fact is highly probable

Answer: (1)

s. 8 (s. 6 BSA) — motive, preparation and conduct are relevant facts.

Evidence / BSA

Q11. Test of competency of witness is:

• (1) Her being intelligent
• (2) Must be major
• (3) Understanding the nature of question
• (4) Capable of understanding the nature of question and giving rational answer. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 118 (s. 124 BSA) — a witness is competent unless unable to understand questions or give rational answers.

CrPC / BNSS

Q12. A statement of a witness recorded under section 161 of Cr.P.C. in writing during investigation and signed by the person making it is hit by:

• (1) Sec. 161(2) of CrPC
• (2) Sec. 161(3) of CrPC
• (3) Sec. 162(1) of CrPC ✔
• (4) Sec. 162(2) of CrPC

Answer: (3)

s. 162(1) CrPC (s. 181 BNSS) — a statement to the police shall not be signed by its maker; if signed, it is hit by s. 162(1).

Evidence / BSA

Q13. Communication between husband and wife is treated as privileged if communication-

• (1) Was made during marriage with promise of confidentiality.
• (2) Was made during marriage, even without promise of confidentiality. ✔
• (3) Was made before marriage with promise of confidentiality.
• (4) Is made after marriage.

Answer: (2)

s. 122 (s. 128 BSA) — any communication during marriage is privileged; no promise of confidence is needed.

Evidence / BSA

Q14. Leading questions can be asked even without permission of Court during

• (1) Examination-in-Chief
• (2) Cross Examination ✔
• (3) Re-Examination.
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 143 (s. 146 BSA) — leading questions may be asked in cross-examination without permission.

Evidence / BSA

Q15. Which one is exception as rule of hearsay evidence?

• (1) dying declaration ✔
• (2) facts forming part of same transaction
• (3) facts forming plea of alibi
• (4) facts regarding character of accuse

Answer: (1)

A dying declaration (s. 32(1), now s. 26 BSA) is the best-known statutory exception to the rule against hearsay.

Evidence / BSA

Q16. What is fact in issue?

• (1) Facts involved indirectly
• (2) Necessary facts to arrive or determine rights, liability or community
• (3) Both
• (4) None ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3 defines a fact in issue as one from which the existence, nature or extent of a right, liability or disability necessarily follows; neither option states this.

Evidence / BSA · Key corrected

Q17. Relevant fact is?

• (1) Facts logically relevant to any fact in issue.
• (2) Facts legally relevant to any fact in issue ✔
• (3) Both
• (4) None

Answer: (2)

Under the Act a fact is “relevant” only if made so by ss. 6-55 — legal, not mere logical, relevance.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Evidence / BSA

Q18. What do you mean by word ‘evidence’?

• (1) Every fact connected with case
• (2) Facts introduced in Court of law
• (3) Both
• (4) None ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3 — “evidence” means statements of witnesses and documents produced for the court’s inspection; neither option defines it.

Contract & Property

Q19. As a general rule, an agreement made without consideration is……

• (1) Void ✔
• (2) Voidable
• (3) Valid
• (4) Unlawful

Answer: (1)

s. 25 — an agreement without consideration is void, subject to the three statutory exceptions.

Contract & Property

Q20. Which of the following is correct of a standard form contract?

• (1) It is valid contract
• (2) The party has no choice but to accept and sign the contract
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) The consent is not a free consent

Answer: (3)

A standard form contract is valid, though the weaker party has no real choice but to sign.

Contract & Property

Q21. In famous Carlill vs. Carbolic Smoke – Ball Co., (1893) 1 QBD 256, Smoke-Ball the Hob’ble Court held that the Contract was accepted on being..

• (1) Communicated
• (2) Acted upon ✔
• (3) Refused
• (4) Advertised

Answer: (2)

Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. — a general offer is accepted by performing its conditions.

Contract & Property

Q22. A contingent agreement based on an impossible event under Section 36 is—

• (1) Void ✔
• (2) Voidable
• (3) Void till impossible is known
• (4) Void when even becomes impossible.

Answer: (1)

s. 36 — an agreement contingent on an impossible event is void.

Contract & Property · Key corrected

Q23. The consensus ad-idem means-

• (1) General consensus
• (2) Reaching an agreement
• (3) Meeting of minds upon the same thing in the same sense ✔
• (4) All the above

Answer: (3)

s. 13 — consensus ad idem: agreement upon the same thing in the same sense.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Jurisprudence

Q24. A jus in personam means a right against-

• (1) A specific person ✔
• (2) The public at large
• (3) A specific thing
• (4) None of these

Answer: (1)

A right in personam avails against a determinate person; a right in rem against the world at large.

Contract & Property

Q25. An agreement to remain unmarried is—

• (1) Valid
• (2) Void ✔
• (3) Voidable
• (4) Unenforceable

Answer: (2)

s. 26 — every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person other than a minor is void.

Contract & Property

Q26. Inadequacy of consideration does not make the contract-

• (1) Void ✔
• (2) Voidable
• (3) Unenforceable
• (4) Neither void or voidable

Answer: (1)

s. 25, Explanation 2 — inadequate consideration does not make the contract void.

Contract & Property

Q27. A proposal when accepted becomes—

• (1) Promise under Section 2 (b) ✔
• (2) Agreement under Section 2 (e)
• (3) Contract under Section 2(H)
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 2(b) — a proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise.

Contract & Property

Q28. Exposure of goods by a shopkeeper is-

• (1) Offer for Sale
• (2) Invitation to Offer ✔
• (3) Offer
• (4) Acceptance

Answer: (2)

Display of goods is an invitation to offer (Pharmaceutical Society v. Boots).

Contract & Property

Q29. Offer under Section 2 (a) is—

• (1) Communication from one person to another
• (2) Suggestion by one person to another
• (3) Willingness to do or abstain from doing an action order to obtain the assent of other thereto. ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 2(a) — signifying willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the other’s assent.

Contract & Property

Q30. An agreement enforceable at law is-

• (1) Enforceable acceptance
• (2) Accepted offer
• (3) Approved promise
• (4) Contract ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(h) — an agreement enforceable by law is a contract.

Contract & Property · Withdrawn / Grace

Q31. An agreement shall be void for—

• (1) Mistake of fact by one party
• (2) Mistake of fact by both the parties ✔
• (3) Mistake of foreign law.
• (4) All the above

Answer: (2) (question withdrawn / grace marks given by the BCI)

s. 20 — an agreement is void where both parties are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to it.

Contract & Property

Q32. Which the following is the correct Statement:

• (1) Under Sec. 7 the suit may be for recovery of special movable property or, in the alternative for compensation.
• (2) Under Sec. 7 pecuniary compensation is not an adequate relief to the plaintiff for the loss of the article and the relief prayed is for injunction restraining the defendant from disposing of the article or otherwise injuring or concealing it, or for return of the same.
• (3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
• (4) All are incorrect. ✔

Answer: (4)

Neither statement correctly states s. 7 SRA, which provides for recovery of specific movable property in the manner laid down by the CPC.

Contract & Property

Q33. Void agreement signifies –

• (1) Agreement illegal in nature
• (2) Agreement not enforceable by law ✔
• (3) Agreement violating legal procedure
• (4) Agreement against public policy

Answer: (2)

s. 2(g) — an agreement not enforceable by law is void.

Contract & Property

Q34. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit under Transfer of Property Act.

• (1) Upon his birth ✔
• (2) 7 days after his birth
• (3) 12 days after his birth
• (4) None of all

Answer: (1)

s. 20 TPA — an unborn person acquires a vested interest upon birth.

Contract & Property

Q35. Which section of Transfer of Property Act deals with onerous gift?

• (1) Section 127 ✔
• (2) Section 126
• (3) Section 125
• (4) Section 124

Answer: (1)

s. 127 TPA deals with onerous gifts.

Contract & Property · Law changed

Q36. Which of the following Statement is incorrect?

• (1) Specific Relief Act, 1963, extends to the whole of India except State of Jammu and Kashmir
• (2) Specific performance is granted where there exists no standard for ascertaining damage.
• (3) Where the aggrieved party can be adequately compensated in money, he will get only a decree for damages and not the recourse to
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

In 2012 all three statements were correct, so “none” was incorrect.

Law now: After the 2018 amendment specific performance is the rule (s. 10), and since 2019 the Act extends to Jammu and Kashmir.

Professional Ethics

Q37. The Bar Council of India consist of following as ex- officio member

• (1) Attorney General of India
• (2) Solicitor General of India
• (3) Both 1 & 2 ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 4 Advocates Act — the Attorney-General and Solicitor-General are ex officio members of the BCI.

Contract & Property

Q38. The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 came into force on—

• (1) 9th December, 1881
• (2) 19th December, 1881
• (3) 1st March, 1882 ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force on 1 March 1882.

Contract & Property

Q39. The term ‘Negotiable instrument’ is defined in the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881.

• (1) Section 12
• (2) Section 13 ✔
• (3) Section 13
• (4) Section 13-B

Answer: (2)

s. 13 defines a negotiable instrument.

Arbitration & ADR · Key corrected

Q40. In India the Arbitration & Conciliation Act was enacted in –

• (1) 1992
• (2) 1993
• (3) 1994
• (4) 1996 ✔

Answer: (4)

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (Act 26 of 1996), replacing the 1940 Act.

Note: The published key gives (3), which is wrong.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q41. Judgment under Section 2(9) means:

• (1) A decree
• (2) Dismissal of an appeal
• (3) Statement of ground of an order or decree ✔
• (4) All the above.

Answer: (3)

s. 2(9) CPC — judgment means the statement given by the judge of the grounds of a decree or order.

Professional Ethics

Q42. Indian Bar Committee was constituted first time under the Chairmanship of Sir Adward Charmier in the year

• (1) 1927
• (2) 1961
• (3) 1949
• (4) 1923 ✔

Answer: (4)

The Indian Bar Committee under Sir Edward Chamier was constituted in 1923.

Professional Ethics

Q43. When was the Advocate Act introduced?

• (1) 1962
• (2) 1959
• (3) 1961 ✔
• (4) 1966

Answer: (3)

The Advocates Act was enacted in 1961.

Professional Ethics

Q44. Power of Disciplinary Comimetic under the Advocate Act is provided under;

• (1) Section 42 ✔
• (2) Section 53
• (3) Section 40
• (4) Section 36

Answer: (1)

s. 42 Advocates Act gives the disciplinary committee the powers of a civil court.

Arbitration & ADR

Q45. The Indian Council of Arbitration was established in:

• (1) 1956
• (2) 1976
• (3) 1965 ✔
• (4) 1996

Answer: (3)

The Indian Council of Arbitration was set up in 1965.

Arbitration & ADR

Q46. Lex Arbitri means—

• (1) Arbitral Tribunal sitting in India can apply the buy the Singapore;
• (2) Just Law
• (3) Arbitrary Law
• (4) None of these ✔

Answer: (4)

Lex arbitri is the law of the seat governing the arbitration; none of the options describes it.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q47. In every plaint, under Section 26 of CPC facts should be proved by:

• (1) Oral evidence
• (2) Affidavit ✔
• (3) Document
• (4) Oral evidence as well as document.

Answer: (2)

s. 26(2) CPC — facts in a plaint shall be proved by affidavit.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q48. Doctrine of Res-judicata as contained in Section 11 of CPC is based on the maxim;

• (1) Nemo debet bis vexari pro uno eteadern causa
• (2) Interest republicae at sit finis litium
• (3) Both (1) & (2) ✔
• (4) Either (1) or (2)

Answer: (3)

Res judicata rests on both maxims: no one should be vexed twice for the same cause, and there should be an end to litigation.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q49. Foreign Court under Section 2(5) of CPC means:

• (1) A Court situated outside India; ✔
• (2) A Court situated outside India the authority of Government of India;
• (3) A Court situated in India applying foreign law;
• (4) All of these

Answer: (1)

s. 2(5) CPC — a court situate outside India and not established or continued by the authority of the Central Government.

Arbitration & ADR

Q50. Section 10, Sub-section (i) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act talks about.

• (1) Power of Arbitration
• (2) Numbers of Arbitrations ✔
• (3) Capacity of Arbitrations
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 10 A&C Act — number of arbitrators (not an even number; sole arbitrator in default).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q51. Principle of Res-sub judice is provided in –

• (1) Sec.10 of CPC ✔
• (2) Sec.11 of CPC
• (3) Sec.13 of CPC
• (4) Sec. 14 of CPC

Answer: (1)

s. 10 CPC — stay of suit (res sub judice).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q52. A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at a place:

• (1) Where the contract was made;
• (2) Where the contract was to be performed or breach occurred;
• (3) Anywhere in India;
• (4) Both (1) and (2) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 20 CPC — where the contract was made, or was to be performed, or the breach occurred.

Limitation Act

Q53. Limitation Act is applicable to-

• (1) Civil suits ✔
• (2) Criminal cases
• (3) Both of the following is correct
• (4) Civil, all the above

Answer: (1)

The Limitation Act governs civil proceedings; limitation for taking cognizance of offences is in CrPC Chapter XXXVI (now BNSS).

Code of Civil Procedure · Key corrected

Q54. Principle of Res-judicata applies;

• (1) Between Co-defendants
• (2) Between Co-plaintiffs
• (3) Both (1) & (2) ✔
• (4) Neither (1) & (2)

Answer: (3)

Res judicata can operate between co-defendants (or co-plaintiffs) where a conflict between them was necessarily decided (Mahboob Sahab v. Syed Ismail, 1995).

Note: The published key gives (4).

Code of Civil Procedure · Key corrected

Q55. Validity of a foreign judgment can be challenged under Section 13 of CPC;

• (1) In a civil Court only
• (2) In a criminal Court only,
• (3) In both civil and criminal Court ✔
• (4) Neither in civil nor in criminal Court

Answer: (3)

s. 13 CPC is applied whenever a foreign judgment is relied on — Y. Narasimha Rao v. Y. Venkata Lakshmi (1991) applied it in a bigamy prosecution.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q56. Under Section 15 of CPC, every suit shall be instituted in:

• (1) The District Court
• (2) The Court of the lowest grade ✔
• (3) The Court of higher grade
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 15 CPC — every suit shall be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q57. ‘X’ residing in Delhi, publishes Statements defamatory to “Y” in Calcutta, “Y” can sue “X” at:

• (1) Delhi
• (2) Calcutta;
• (3) Anywhere in India
• (4) Either in Delhi or in Calcutta ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 19 CPC — a suit for a wrong to the person may be filed where the wrong was done or where the defendant resides.

Company Law & NI Act · Withdrawn / Grace

Q58. Which of the following clause from Memorandum of Association cannot be amended?

• (1) Objects Clause
• (2) Liability Clause
• (3) Association Clause ✔
• (4) Registered office clause

Answer: (3) (question withdrawn / grace marks given by the BCI)

The subscription (association) clause records the original subscribers and cannot be altered.

Limitation Act

Q59. The existence of statutes of limitation are due to:

• (1) Long dormant claims have more of cruelty than justice in them
• (2) The defendant may have lost the evidence to dispute the stale claim
• (3) Persons with good causes of action should pursue them with reasonable diligence
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Limitation rests on all three: stale claims, lost evidence, and the duty of diligence.

IPC / BNS

Q60. Right of private defence of the body extends to voluntary causing death if the offence, which is occasions the exercise of right:

• (1) Reasonably causes apprehension that death will be caused ✔
• (2) Reasonably causes apprehension that simple injury will be caused
• (3) Is of escaping with stolen property immediately after the theft
• (4) Is of arresting a person who is running away after having committed an offence of voluntarily causing hurt

Answer: (1)

s. 100 IPC (s. 38 BNS) — private defence extends to causing death where there is reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt.

IPC / BNS

Q61. Under Section 498 A, the ‘Cruelty’ means and includes:

• (1) Only demand of dowry
• (2) Only physical torture
• (3) Both mental & physical torture ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 498A IPC (ss. 85-86 BNS) — cruelty includes both mental and physical harm.

Company Law & NI Act

Q62. Free transferability of shares is mandatory in a-

• (1) Listed Company
• (2) Company Ltd. By shares
• (3) Public Ltd. Company ✔
• (4) Foreign Company

Answer: (3)

Shares of a public company are freely transferable (s. 58(2) Companies Act, 2013); a private company must restrict transfer.

Company Law & NI Act · Law changed

Q63. Upon failure to hold Statutory Meeting, the penalty for defaulting Company shall be-

• (1) Rs. 500 per day of default ✔
• (3) Rs.1000 per day of the default
• (4) None of these

Answer: (1)

The published key gives (1) for default in holding the statutory meeting under the 1956 Act.

Note: Option (2) is missing in the source paper.

Law now: The statutory meeting was abolished by the Companies Act, 2013.

IPC / BNS

Q64. What is the offence where preparation itself of a offence is punishable:

• (1) Theft
• (2) Dacoity ✔
• (3) Murder
• (4) Rape

Answer: (2)

s. 399 IPC (s. 310(4) BNS) — making preparation to commit dacoity is itself punishable.

Jurisprudence

Q65. ‘Fiction Theory’ is related to which of the following concepts?

• (1) Ownership
• (2) Liability
• (3) Justice
• (4) Legal personality ✔

Answer: (4)

The fiction theory (Savigny) explains corporate legal personality.

IPC / BNS

Q66. In the IPC, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:

• (1) Eight years
• (2) Ten years
• (3) Seven years ✔
• (4) Twelve years

Answer: (3)

s. 82 IPC (s. 20 BNS) — nothing is an offence by a child under seven.

Jurisprudence

Q67. Who described Jurisprudence as Lawyer’s Extra version?

• (1) Savigny
• (2) Salmond
• (3) Julius Stone ✔
• (4) Buckland

Answer: (3)

Julius Stone described jurisprudence as “the lawyer’s extraversion”.

Family Law

Q68. A Sunni Muslim marries with Kitabya girl, the marriage is:

• (1) Valid ✔
• (2) Void
• (3) Irregular
• (4) None of these

Answer: (1)

A Sunni Muslim male may validly marry a kitabia (Christian or Jew).

Family Law · Key corrected

Q69. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 is based on which School of Muslim-

• (1) Hanafi School
• (2) Shafi School
• (3) Maliki School ✔
• (4) Zaidi School

Answer: (3)

The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 drew its grounds from Maliki law, as Hanafi law gave the wife almost none.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Family Law

Q70. A child born of void and voidable marriage under Hindu law is:

• (1) Legitimate ✔
• (2) Illegitimate
• (3) Illegal
• (4) None of these

Answer: (1)

s. 16 HMA — children of void and voidable marriages are legitimate.

Family Law

Q71. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a female Hindu has the capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption if:

• (1) She is not married ✔
• (2) She is married
• (3) She is widow and has no son or daughter but has a widowed daughter in-law
• (4) She cannot adopt at ali

Answer: (1)

s. 8 HAMA — a female Hindu of sound mind who is a major may adopt.

Note: Since the 2010 amendment a married woman may also adopt, with her husband’s consent.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q72. A has sexual intercourse with his own wife aged about 14 years with her consent A committed:

• (1) No offence
• (2) Offence of Rape ✔
• (3) Intercourse with own wife is not Rape.
• (4) As there was consent hence A cannot be held guilty for the offence rape

Answer: (2)

Intercourse with one’s wife under the protected age is rape regardless of consent.

Law now: Independent Thought v. Union of India (2017) raised the age to 18; s. 63 BNS now uses 18.

Jurisprudence

Q73. Who categorized the subject of ‘jurisprudence’ expositorial & censorial Jurisprudence?

• (1) Holland
• (2) Bentham ✔
• (3) Kelsen
• (4) Paton

Answer: (2)

Bentham divided jurisprudence into expositorial (law as it is) and censorial (law as it ought to be).

IPC / BNS

Q74. In Rex vs. Govinda the points of distinction between the two provisions of the IPC were explained:

• (1) Section 34 and Section 149
• (2) Section 302 and Section 304
• (3) Section 299 and Section 300 ✔
• (4) Section 403 and Section 405

Answer: (3)

R v. Govinda (1876) explained the distinction between s. 299 and s. 300 IPC.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q75. The Trade Union Act provide for:

• (1) registration of trade union ✔
• (2) registration of trade union for workers
• (3) recognition of registration of trade union as Juristic Persons
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides for the registration of trade unions.

Law now: Now subsumed in the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, in force from 21 November 2025.

Administrative Law

Q76. Maxim delegatus non potest del’ means?

• (1) A delegate can further delegate
• (2) A delegate cannot further delegate ✔
• (3) A delegate must protest delegation objectively
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Delegatus non potest delegare — a delegate cannot further delegate.

Labour Law

Q77. The term “Lock-out” under the Industrial Dispute Act is defined in:

• (1) Section 2(1) ✔
• (2) Section 2 (O)
• (3) Section 3(1)
• (4) Section 2 (M)

Answer: (1)

s. 2(l) ID Act defines lock-out.

Administrative Law

Q78. Supremacy of law, Equality before law, and predominance of legal Spirit are the basic principles of doctrine of

• (1) Colorable Legistaltion;
• (2) Doctrine of ‘Separation of Powers’
• (3) Doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’ ✔
• (4) Doctrine of ‘Excessive delegation’

Answer: (3)

Dicey’s rule of law: supremacy of law, equality before law, predominance of legal spirit.

Labour Law

Q79. The Trade Union Act was enacted:

• (1) 1926 ✔
• (2) 1946
• (3) 1947
• (4) 1988

Answer: (1)

The Trade Unions Act was enacted in 1926.

Labour Law

Q80. The term “Lay-off” has been defined under the Industrial Disputes Act:

• (1) Section 2 (KKK) ✔
• (2) Section 2 (O)
• (3) Section 2(1)
• (4) Section 3 (1)

Answer: (1)

s. 2(kkk) ID Act defines lay-off.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q81. The term “Minimum Wage” has been described in:

• (1) The Trade Union Act
• (2) The Industrial Dispute Act
• (3) The Minimum Wage Act ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Minimum wages are fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.

Law now: Now subsumed in the Code on Wages, 2019.

Constitutional Law

Q82. “Rule of Law is antithesis of arbitrariness in all civilized societies, It has come to be regarded as mark of a free society It seeks to maintain the balance between the opposite notions of individual liberty and public order this was opined by whom in famous “Habeas Corpus” case?

• (1) Justice H.R. Khanna
• (2) Chief Justice Ray
• (3) Justice Chandrnchud ✔
• (4) Justice Bhagawati

Answer: (3)

The passage is from Chandrachud J. in ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q83. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in:

• (1) 1985
• (2) 1986 ✔
• (3) 2005
• (4) 2008

Answer: (2)

The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in 1986.

Law now: Replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q84. Appeal against the award of Claims Tribunals under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 can be made under:

• (1) Section 171
• (2) Section 172
• (3) Section 173 ✔
• (4) Section 174

Answer: (3)

s. 173 MV Act — appeal to the High Court against an award of the Claims Tribunal.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q85. The amendment in Motor Vehicles Act in 1994, the compensation in case of death of the person is:

• (1) Rs.25,000
• (2) Rs. 50,000 ✔
• (3) Rs. 70,000
• (4) Rs.90,000

Answer: (2)

The 1994 amendment raised no-fault compensation for death under s. 140 to Rs. 50,000.

Law now: s. 140 was omitted in 2019; no-fault compensation under s. 164 is now Rs. 5 lakh for death.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q86. Under the vicarious liability, the liability is

• (1) Joint
• (2) Several
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) Either of the above depending upon facts and circumstances of the case

Answer: (3)

Master and servant are jointly and severally liable for the servant’s tort.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q87. In Torts, in case of Defamation;

• (1) Intention to defame is not necessary ✔
• (2) Intention to defame is necessary
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) Either (1) or (2)

Answer: (1)

In defamation, intention to defame is not necessary (E. Hulton & Co. v. Jones).

Constitutional Law

Q88. While interpreting the phrase “equality before the law” contained in Article 14 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court constantly maintained that equality means:

• (1) Absolute equality among human beings
• (2) Equal treatment to all persons
• (3) Among equals, the law should be equal and should be equal and should be equally administered ✔
• (4) Both (2) & (3)

Answer: (3)

Art. 14 — among equals the law should be equal and equally administered; like should be treated alike.

General Knowledge

Q89. The father of which of the leader has been the Deputy Prime Minister of India?

• (1) Kumari Mayawati
• (2) Mrs. Meera Kumar ✔
• (3) Mrs. Pratibh Singh Patil
• (4) Mrs. Vasundhara Raje

Answer: (2)

Meira Kumar’s father, Jagjivan Ram, was Deputy Prime Minister (1977-79).

Constitutional Law

Q90. The concept of ‘ Judicial Review in India is based on:

• (1) Procedure established by law;
• (2) Due process of law;
• (3) Rule of law; ✔
• (4) International treaties and convention

Answer: (3)

Judicial review enforces the rule of law under a written Constitution (Arts. 13, 32, 226).

Environmental Law

Q91. Protection of environment is a:

• (1) Constitutional Duty
• (2) Directive Principle
• (3) Fundamental Duty
• (4) Both (2) & (3) ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 48A (Directive Principle) and Art. 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty).

Constitutional Law

Q92. The item ‘Education’ belongs to the:

• (1) Union List
• (2) State List
• (3) Concurrent List ✔
• (4) Residuary Subject.

Answer: (3)

Education was moved to the Concurrent List (Entry 25) by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

Constitutional Law

Q93. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India?”

• (1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
• (2) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
• (3) B.N. Rao ✔
• (4) Jawaharlal Nehru.

Answer: (3)

Sir B.N. Rau was the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly.

Constitutional Law

Q94. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?

• (1) Quo Warranto
• (2) Mandamus
• (3) Habeas Corpus ✔
• (4) Certiorari

Answer: (3)

Habeas corpus is the great writ of personal liberty.

Constitutional Law

Q95. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution”?

• (1) Rights of equality
• (2) Rights, to Freedom of Religion
• (3) Rights to Constitutional Remedies ✔
• (4) All the above

Answer: (3)

Dr Ambedkar called Art. 32 the “heart and soul” of the Constitution.

Constitutional Law

Q96. The number of Fundamental Rights available in Constitution of India are:

• (1) Six ✔
• (2) Seven
• (3) Eight
• (4) Ten

Answer: (1)

Six, after the right to property was removed by the 44th Amendment, 1978.

Labour Law · Withdrawn / Grace

Q97. The Minimum Wages Act was enacted”:

• (1) 1921
• (2) 1923
• (3) 1947
• (4) 2007

Answer: Withdrawn / grace marks

Grace mark: the Minimum Wages Act was enacted in 1948, which is not among the options.