AIBE 13 (XIII) 2018 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 100 Questions Solved

Read this first

• 4 published keys were corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 1 question was withdrawn or given grace marks. Where one option is still right in law, it is shown as the answer.
• 20 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q1. Which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C deals with examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner

• (1) Section 54-A
• (2) Section 55-A
• (3) Section 53-A ✔
• (4) Section 60-A

Answer: (3)

s. 53A CrPC — medical examination of a person accused of rape.

Law now: Now s. 52 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q2. According to section 167 of the Cr.P.C an accused person can be remanded to police custody for not more than.

• (1) 7 days at one time
• (2) 30 days at one time
• (3) 15 days at one time ✔
• (4) 60 days at one time

Answer: (3)

s. 167(2) CrPC — police custody cannot exceed fifteen days in all.

Law now: Under s. 187 BNSS the 15 days may be taken in parts during the first 40 or 60 days.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q3. A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under section 122 of the Indian evidence act-

• (1) Remains privileged even after dissolution of marriage ✔
• (2) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by divorce
• (3) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by death
• (4) Does not remain privileged in both the case (b) and (c)

Answer: (1)

s. 122 — the privilege continues even after the marriage is dissolved.

Law now: Now s. 128 BSA.

Evidence / BSA

Q4. Which section of the Indian Evidence act provides that an accomplice is a competent witness

• (1) Section 114 illustration (B)
• (2) Section 118
• (3) Section 133 ✔
• (4) Section 134

Answer: (3)

s. 133 — an accomplice is a competent witness.

Law now: Now s. 138 BSA.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q5. Which one of the following sections of Cr. P.C deals with compoundable offence?

• (1) Section 319
• (2) Section 320 ✔
• (3) Section 321
• (4) Section 324

Answer: (2)

s. 320 CrPC — compounding.

Law now: Now s. 359 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q6. What is the time limit under section 468 of Cr. P.C for taking cognizance:

• (1) One year
• (2) Two years
• (3) Three years ✔
• (4) No limit

Answer: (3)

s. 468 CrPC — six months, one year or three years by punishment; three years is the outer limit.

Law now: Now s. 514 BNSS.

Labour Law

Q7. “Industrial establishment” means- i) A factory ii) A mine iii) A plantation iv) An industry

• (1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
• (2) (i), (ii), (ii) ✔
• (3) (i) and (ii)
• (4) only (i)

Answer: (2)

s. 25L ID Act — “industrial establishment” means a factory, mine or plantation.

Labour Law

Q8. Strike should be called only if at least……… percent of workers are in support of strike. (Fill in the blank).

• (1) 10
• (2) 15 ✔
• (3) 20
• (4) 25

Answer: (2)

The paper’s key gives 15 per cent.

Note: No Indian statute fixes such a threshold; treat this as a one-off question.

Labour Law · Key corrected

Q9. Industrial relations cover the following area(s)/ i) Collective bargaining ii) Labour legislation iii) Industrial relations training iv) Trade unions

• (1) (i)
• (2) (i) and (ii)
• (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) ✔

Answer: (4)

Industrial relations cover collective bargaining, labour legislation, IR training and trade unions.

Note: The published key gives (3), which wrongly leaves out trade unions.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q10. State of U.P. Vs. Nawab Hussain,1977 SCR (3) 428 relates to:

• (1) Res subjudice.
• (2) Res judicate.
• (3) Constructive resjudicata ✔
• (4) Deemed rejudicata

Answer: (3)

State of U.P. v. Nawab Hussain (1977) — constructive res judicata, Explanation IV to s. 11 CPC.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q11. X is living in Pune and Y, his brother in Mumbai, X wants to file a suit for partition of their joint property situated in Delhi and Bangalore.

• (1) The suit may be instituted in Delhi only.
• (2) The suit may be instituted in Bangalore only.
• (3) The suit may be instituted either in Delhi or Bangalore. ✔
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (3)

s. 17 CPC — where property lies in different jurisdictions, suit lies where any portion is situated.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q12. An immovable property held by Y is situated at Bhopal and the wrongdoer personally works for gain at Indore. A Suit to obtain compensation for wrong to the property may be instituted.

• (1) At Bhopal
• (2) At Indore
• (3) Either at Bhopal or at Indore ✔
• (4) None of these

Answer: (3)

Proviso to s. 16 CPC — where relief can be obtained through the defendant’s personal obedience, the suit may also lie where he works for gain.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q13. which of the following section of the motor vehicle Act 1988 defines the term ‘Owner’?

• (1) Section 2 (30) ✔
• (2) Section 2 (31)
• (3) Section 2 (25)
• (4) Section2 (32)

Answer: (1)

s. 2(30) MV Act defines owner.

Land Acquisition

Q14. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 an industrial concern, ordinarily, employing not less than………………Workmen owned by an individual or by an association of individuals and not being a Company, desiring to acquire land for the erection of dwelling houses for workmen employed by the concern or for the provision of amenities directly connected therewith shall, so far as concerns the Acquisition of such land, be deemed to be a company for the purpose of this part, and the references to company in [sections 4, 5A, 6, 7, and 50] shall be interpreted as references also to such concern. Fill in the blanks:

• (1) One Hundred ✔
• (2) Two Hundred
• (3) Three Hundred
• (4) Four Hundred

Answer: (1)

s. 38A LA Act — an industrial concern employing not less than 100 workmen.

Land Acquisition

Q15. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 the expression “Company” means-

• (1) a company as defined in section 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause(cc); ✔
• (2) a company as defined in section 2 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause (c)
• (3) a company as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act, 1956(1 of 1956) other than a Government referred to in clause (cc);
• (4) accompany as defined in section 6 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), other than a Government company referred to in clause (c);

Answer: (1)

s. 3(e) LA Act — company under s. 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company under clause (cc).

Taxation

Q16. Under which Section of Income tax Act, 1961 ‘Income of other persons included in Assesses total income’

• (1) 56-58
• (2) 60-65 ✔
• (3) 45-54
• (4) All of the Above

Answer: (2)

ss. 60-65 Income-tax Act, 1961 — clubbing of income.

Taxation · Law changed

Q17. A period of 12th Months commencing on the 1st day of April of every year is known As:

• (1) Assessment year ✔
• (2) Leap year
• (3) Previous year
• (4) None

Answer: (1)

s. 2(9) — assessment year.

Law now: The Income-tax Act, 2025 replaces previous and assessment years with a single “tax year”.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q18. which Section of the information technology (amendment) Act, 2008 deals with the validity of contracts formed through electronic means:

• (1) Section 12
• (2) Section 10A ✔
• (3) Section 11
• (4) Section 13

Answer: (2)

s. 10A IT Act (inserted 2008) — validity of contracts formed electronically.

Family Law

Q19. Which of the following is essential for a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?

• (1) Datta homam
• (2) Actual giving and taking of child ✔
• (3) Both (a) and (b)
• (4) None of the Above

Answer: (2)

s. 11(vi) HAMA — actual giving and taking is essential; datta homam is not.

Family Law

Q20. Hindu male can adopt a female child, if the difference of age between the two is of more than

• (1) 15 years
• (2) 18 years
• (3) 20 years
• (4) 21 years ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 11(iii) HAMA — at least 21 years older.

Family Law

Q21. Which of the following relations is not dependent under Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and maintenance Act 1956?

• (1) Grand Mother ✔
• (2) Mother
• (3) Widow
• (4) Daughter

Answer: (1)

s. 21 HAMA does not list the grandmother as a dependant.

Family Law

Q22. “Hadees” is one of the sources of Muslim law, it comprises

• (1) Very words of god
• (2) Words and actions of the prophet ✔
• (3) Unanimous decision of jurists
• (4) Analogical decisions

Answer: (2)

Hadith are the words and actions of the Prophet.

Intellectual Property · Law changed

Q23. Intellectual Property appellate Board is established under which Act

• (1) The Copyright Act, 1957
• (2) The Patent Act, 1970
• (3) The Trademark Act, 1999 ✔
• (4) The Designs Act, 2000

Answer: (3)

s. 83 Trade Marks Act, 1999 established the IPAB.

Law now: The IPAB was abolished by the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021; its work went to the High Courts.

Intellectual Property

Q24. Which is the subject matter of neighbouring rights protection-

• (1) Performance ✔
• (2) Dramatic work
• (3) Geographical indication
• (4) New varieties and plant

Answer: (1)

Neighbouring rights protect performers, phonogram producers and broadcasters.

Taxation

Q25. Adam Smith has enumerated cannons of taxation which are accepted universally they are:

• (1) Equality and Certainty
• (2) Equality, convenience and Economy
• (3) Equality and Economy
• (4) Equality, Certainty, Convenience and Economy ✔

Answer: (4)

Adam Smith’s canons: equality, certainty, convenience and economy.

Taxation

Q26. For the first time in India Income tax law was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:

• (1) 1886
• (2) 1868
• (3) 1860 ✔
• (4) None of the Above

Answer: (3)

James Wilson introduced income tax in 1860.

Evidence / BSA

Q27. Under section 118 of the Indian evidence act, a person is a competent witness if he or she-

• (1) Is a major
• (2) Is not lunatic
• (3) Is not of extreme old age
• (4) of understanding questions put to him and giving rational answers irrespective of age ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 118 — competence depends on understanding questions and giving rational answers.

Evidence / BSA

Q28. Which of the following judgement is irrelevant under section 43 of Indian evidence act

• (1) Judgement of an insolvency court
• (2) Judgement of criminal court ✔
• (3) Judgement of matrimonial court
• (4) Judgement of probate court

Answer: (2)

s. 41 makes probate, matrimonial and insolvency judgments relevant; a criminal judgment is not, by s. 43.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q29. Under which section of the Indian evidence act a witness has been given right to refresh his memory

• (1) Section 157
• (2) Section 158
• (3) Section 159 ✔
• (4) Section 160

Answer: (3)

s. 159 — refreshing memory.

Law now: Now s. 162 BSA.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q30. The provision relating to free legal aid is given under

• (1) Section 301
• (2) Section 304 ✔
• (3) Section 303
• (4) Section 305

Answer: (2)

s. 304 CrPC — legal aid to the accused at State expense.

Law now: Now s. 341 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q31. Under Which one of the following provisions of Cr.P.C police officer is under an obligation to produce the person arrested before a magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest

• (1) Section 56
• (2) section 57 ✔
• (3) Section 60
• (4) Section 70

Answer: (2)

s. 57 CrPC — not more than 24 hours.

Law now: Now s. 58 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q32. Who may record confessional statement under section 164 of the Cr.P.C?

• (1) Police Officer
• (2) Judicial officer ✔
• (3) Both A and B
• (4) Judicial Magistrate having Jurisdiction only

Answer: (2)

s. 164 CrPC — a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate, whether or not he has jurisdiction in the case.

Law now: Now s. 183 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q33. The provision relating Plea bargaining is not applicable in following offence.

• (1) Scio-economic offence
• (2) Offence against women
• (3) Both A and B ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 265A CrPC — not for socio-economic offences or offences against women or children.

Law now: Now s. 289 BNSS.

Arbitration & ADR

Q34. What is the maximum duration within which fast track arbitration must be completed-

• (1) 6 Month ✔
• (2) 12 Month
• (3) 18 Month
• (4) 24 Month

Answer: (1)

s. 29B A&C Act (2015) — award within six months.

CrPC / BNSS

Q35. Which one of the following section deals with form of summons?

• (1) Section 60
• (2) Section 61 ✔
• (3) Section 62
• (4) Section 64

Answer: (2)

s. 61 CrPC — form of summons.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q36. Under Cr. P.C provisions relating to prosecution of judge is provided under.

• (1) Section 196
• (2) Section 197 ✔
• (3) Section 198
• (4) Section 199

Answer: (2)

s. 197 CrPC — sanction to prosecute judges and public servants.

Law now: Now s. 218 BNSS.

Evidence / BSA

Q37. A question suggesting the answers which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called-

• (1) Indecent Questions
• (2) Leading Questions ✔
• (3) Improper Questions
• (4) Proper Questions

Answer: (2)

s. 141 — leading question.

Family Law

Q38. Option of puberty is a ground of divorce Under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 for-

• (1) Only Husband
• (2) Only Wife ✔
• (3) Both Husband and Wife
• (4) None of the Above

Answer: (2)

s. 13(2)(iv) HMA — option of puberty is a wife’s ground.

Family Law

Q39. which section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that a child from a void marriage would be legitimate?

• (1) Section 11
• (2) section 13 (a)
• (3) Section 12
• (4) Section 16 ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 16 HMA — legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages.

Environmental Law

Q40. Which of the following appears to contribute to global cooling rather than global warming

• (1) Nitrous Oxide
• (2) Aerosols ✔
• (3) Methane
• (4) CFC

Answer: (2)

Aerosols reflect sunlight and have a cooling effect.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q41. A and B agree to fence with each other for amusement.This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which in the course of fencing, may be caused without foul play and if A, while playing fairly, hurts B. A commit no offence. The provision are given under:

• (1) Section 87 ✔
• (2) Section 85
• (3) Section 86
• (4) Section 88

Answer: (1)

Illustration to s. 87 IPC — fencing.

Law now: Now s. 25 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q42. The provision of the right of private defence are given:

• (1) Under section 96- 10s of the Indian penal code
• (2) Under section 94- 106 of the Indian penal code
• (3) Under section 96-106 of the Indian penal code ✔
• (4) Under section 95-106 of the Indian penal code

Answer: (3)

ss. 96-106 IPC — private defence.

Law now: Now ss. 34-44 BNS.

Contract & Property

Q43. A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover in the manner provided by:

• (1) The code of procedure, Act 1908. ✔
• (2) The Indian registration Act, 1908
• (3) The Indian Contract Act, 1872,
• (4) The Transfer of property Act, 1882.

Answer: (1)

s. 5 SRA — in the manner provided by the CPC.

Contract & Property

Q44. section 39 of Specific Relief Act deals with-

• (1) Registration of Instruments
• (2) Cancellation of Instruments
• (3) Correctness of Instruments
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 39 SRA deals with mandatory injunctions.

Constitutional Law

Q45. Joint sitting of both Houses of parliament may be called by the?

• (1) Speaker
• (2) Chairman
• (3) President ✔
• (4) Prime Minister

Answer: (3)

Art. 108 — the President summons a joint sitting.

Contract & Property

Q46. Specific relief……….. Where the agreement is made with minor (fill in the blanks).

• (1) Can get
• (2) Cannot be given ✔
• (3) Can release
• (4) Implemented with law

Answer: (2)

A minor’s agreement is void (Mohori Bibee, 1903), so specific performance cannot be given.

Contract & Property

Q47. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performances of contract are provided in which section of Specific Relief Act:

• (1) 27
• (2) 28 ✔
• (3) 29
• (4) 30

Answer: (2)

s. 28 SRA — where the decree-holder purchaser or lessee fails to pay, the vendor or lessor may have the contract rescinded.

Note: Personal bars to relief are in s. 16.

Contract & Property

Q48. What kind of property is transferable?

• (1) Pension.
• (2) Public office.
• (3) Right to re-entry
• (4) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 6 TPA — property of any kind may be transferred unless the law prohibits it.

Contract & Property

Q49. Which of the following does not come under the ‘immovable property’ as per the T.P. Act?

• (1) Sales of a ceiling fan. ✔
• (2) Right to claim maintenance.
• (3) Right relating to lease
• (4) Easementary right.

Answer: (1)

A ceiling fan is movable property.

IPC / BNS · Key corrected · Withdrawn / Grace

Q50. X strike “A’, ‘A’ is by this provocation excited to violent range. ‘y’ a bystander intending to take advantage of ‘A’s rage and to cause him kill ‘X’, gives a revolver into ‘A’ s hand for that purpose. ‘A’ kills ‘X’ with the revolver:

• (1) A is liable for committing murder and Y is liable for abetting murder.
• (2) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is not liable.
• (3) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is liable for abetting culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
• (4) A is not liable and Y is liable for abetting murder.

Answer: Withdrawn / grace marks

No correct option: Illustration (f) to Exception 1, s. 300 IPC — A commits only culpable homicide, while Y, the bystander, is guilty of murder.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Law now: Same illustration under s. 101 BNS.

Constitutional Law

Q51. Right to free Legal Aid was recognised as a fundamental right under act 21 of Indian Constitution in the Case of-

• (1) Hussainara Khatoun Vs Home Secretary, State of Bihar, Air 1979 SC 1360 ✔
• (2) M.H Hoskot Vs State of Maharashtra, Air 1978 SC 1548
• (3) Madhu Mehta Vs Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548
• (4) Rudal Shah Vs State of Bihar (1983) 45 5 14

Answer: (1)

Hussainara Khatoon (1979) — speedy trial and free legal aid as part of Art. 21.

Note: M.H. Hoskot (1978) had earlier read legal assistance for appeals into Art. 21.

Constitutional Law

Q52. In Which Country was the concept of PIL Originated

• (1) United Kingdom
• (2) United State of America ✔
• (3) India
• (4) Australia

Answer: (2)

PIL originated in the United States.

Administrative Law

Q53. Delegated legislation was declared constitutional in?

• (1) Berubari case
• (2) Delhi laws act case ✔
• (3) Keshwarnand bharti case
• (4) Maneka Gandhi case

Answer: (2)

In re Delhi Laws Act (1951).

Company Law & NI Act

Q54. A Prospectus which does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included there in known as:

• (1) shelf Prospectus
• (2) memorandum
• (3) Red Herring Prospectus ✔
• (4) Issuing house

Answer: (3)

s. 32 Companies Act, 2013 — red herring prospectus.

Company Law & NI Act

Q55. When there is no profit in one year or the profit of a company is not enough to pay the fixed dividend on preference shares, the arrears of dividend are to be carried forward and paid before a dividend is paid on the ordinary shares. This is called:

• (1) Participating preference shares
• (2) cumulative preference shares ✔
• (3) Non- cumulative preference shares
• (4) Non- Participating preference shares

Answer: (2)

Cumulative preference shares.

Labour Law

Q56. “Industrial dispute means any dispute or difference between i) Employees and employers ii) Employers and workmen iii) Workmen and workmen iv) Master and worker

• (1) (i) and (ii)
• (2) (iv)
• (3) (i), (ii),(iii) and (iv)
• (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(k) ID Act — disputes between employers and employers, employers and workmen, and workmen and workmen.

Family Law

Q57. Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956 provides for the Maintenance of:

• (1) Wife
• (2) Parents
• (3) Widowed daughter -in-law ✔
• (4) Children

Answer: (3)

s. 19 HAMA — maintenance of a widowed daughter- in-law.

Family Law

Q58. Section 30 of the Hindu successions Act, 1956 deals with:-

• (1) Woman estate
• (2) Testamentary Successions ✔
• (3) Male Successions
• (4) Female Successions

Answer: (2)

s. 30 HSA — testamentary succession.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q59. When two or more person, by fighting in a public place disturb the public the public peace, they are said to commit:

• (1) A riot
• (2) An affray ✔
• (3) An assault
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 159 IPC — affray.

Law now: Now s. 194 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q60. Promotion of “class hatred” in given under:

• (1) Section 153-A of the I.P.C ✔
• (2) Section 153-AA of the I.P.C
• (3) Section 153-8 of the I.P.C
• (4) Section 144-A of the I.P.C

Answer: (1)

s. 153A IPC.

Law now: Now s. 196 BNS.

IPC / BNS

Q61. The distinction between section 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill. J. in:

• (1) Reg Vs Gorachand Gopee
• (2) Reg Vs Govinda ✔
• (3) Govinda Vs Reg
• (4) Reg Vs Hayward

Answer: (2)

R. v. Govinda (1876).

Constitutional Law

Q62. Who was the Chief Justice of India when the Concept of PIL was introduced to Indian Judicial system

• (1) M. Hidayataullah
• (2) A.M. Ahmadi
• (3) A.S. Anand
• (4) P.N. Bhagwati ✔

Answer: (4)

P.N. Bhagwati J. pioneered PIL and later became CJI (1985-86).

Note: PIL emerged around 1979-81, when Y.V. Chandrachud was CJI; Bhagwati is the name the paper intends.

Constitutional Law

Q63. The Supreme Court of India issued a number of direction for the prevention of Woman in Various forms of prostitution and to rehabilitate their Children Through various welfare measures an so as to provide them with dignity of person means of livelihood and socio-economic development in the Case of-

• (1) Vishaka Vs State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 Section 3011
• (2) Gaurav Jain Vs Union of India, AIR 1997 Section 3021 ✔
• (3) Delhi Domestic Working women’s Forum Vs Union of India (1998) 1 Section 14
• (4) Sheela Barse Vs Union of India (1986) 35 Section 596

Answer: (2)

Gaurav Jain v. Union of India (1997).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q64. A resides at Hyderabad, B at Calcutta and Cat Delhi. A, B and C being together at Allahabad, B and C make a joint promissory note payable on demand, and deliver to A. A may sue B and C:

• (1) At Allahabad where the cause of action arises.
• (2) At Calcutta, where B resides.
• (3) At Delhi, where C resides.
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

Illustration (b) to s. 20 CPC.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q65. Section 25 empowers the supreme court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding:

• (1) From one High Court to another High Court.
• (2) Form one civil court in court in one state to another civil court in any other state.
• (3) Both (a) and (b) ✔
• (4) 0nly (a)

Answer: (3)

s. 25 CPC — between High Courts or civil courts of different States.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q66. In which of the following cases, can C set off the claim?

• (1) A sues C on a bill of exchange for Rs. 500/-, C alleges that A has wrongfully neglected to insure C’s goods and he is liable to pay compensation.
• (2) A sues C on a bill of exchange for Rs. 500/-, C holds a decree against A for recovery of debt of Rs. 1000 ✔
• (3) A sues B and C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to C alone by A.
• (4) A and B sues C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to C by alone

Answer: (2)

O. 8 R. 6 CPC — an ascertained sum under a decree can be set off.

Constitutional Law

Q67. “Mandamus” May be issued by

• (1) Supreme court
• (2) High court
• (3) District court
• (4) Both (a) & (b) ✔

Answer: (4)

Supreme Court (Art. 32) and High Courts (Art. 226).

Constitutional Law

Q68. The provision for administration tribunals is added by

• (1) 42 Amendment ✔
• (2) 44″ Amendment
• (3) 24th Amendment
• (4) 43′′ Amendment

Answer: (1)

The 42nd Amendment (1976) inserted Arts. 323A and 323B.

Constitutional Law

Q69. Which of the following is not a Federal feature of any Constitution

• (1) Written Constitution
• (2) Double set of Government
• (3) Rigid Constitutional
• (4) Single citizenship ✔

Answer: (4)

Single citizenship is a unitary feature.

Constitutional Law

Q70. Parliament in exercise of its power to amend under Article 368, may not amend

• (1) Preamble
• (2) Fundamental Right
• (3) Supreme Court
• (4) Basic statement ✔

Answer: (4)

Parliament cannot alter the basic structure.

Constitutional Law

Q71. Which article starts with “Subject to public order, morality & health”.

• (1) Article 14
• (2) Article 15
• (3) Article 28
• (4) Article 25 ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 25.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q72. A “dumb witness” gives his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated as

• (1) oral evidence ✔
• (2) Documentary evidence
• (3) Secondary evidence
• (4) Primary evidence

Answer: (1)

s. 119 — such evidence is deemed oral evidence.

Law now: Now s. 125 BSA.

Evidence / BSA

Q73. Under the Indian evidence act, which of the following is not a court

• (1) Persons legally authorised to take evidence
• (2) Judges
• (3) Magistrates
• (4) Arbitrators ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3 — arbitrators are excluded from “Court”.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q74. The term ‘Suit of a Civil Nature’ refers to:

• (1) Private rights and obligations of a citizen. ✔
• (2) Political, social and religious question.
• (3) A suit in which principal question relates to caste or religion.
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 9 CPC — suits about private rights and obligations.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q75. The rule of res Sub- Judice Implies:

• (1) Where the same subject matter is pending is a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on. ✔
• (2) Where the same subject matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the different parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on.
• (3) Where the different subject matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on.
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 10 CPC — res sub judice.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q76. A suit brought by a person to recover possession from a stranger of matth property claiming it as heir of the deceased Mahant. The suit is dismissed on his failure to produce the succession certificate. A second suit was filed by him as manager of the matth.

• (1) The second suit will be barred by Res Judicata.
• (2) The second suit will not be barred by Res Judicata. ✔
• (3) The second suit will be barred by Res sub- Judicata
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Res judicata requires the same title; a suit as manager is in a different capacity from a suit as heir.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q77. Section 66A was invalidated by the Supreme Court of India in:

• (1) Anvar P. V. Vs P.K. Basheer, (2014)10 SCC 473.
• (2) Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India, AIR 2015SC 1523. ✔
• (3) Dr. Prafulla Desai Vs State of Maharashtra, AIR 2003 SC 2053.
• (4) State (NCT of Delhi) Vs Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600.

Answer: (2)

Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015).

Environmental Law

Q78. Environmental impact assessment (EIA) is mandatory under

• (1) Indian forest act
• (2) Air act
• (3) Wildlife protection act
• (4) Environment protection act ✔

Answer: (4)

The EIA Notifications (1994, 2006) were issued under the Environment (Protection) Act.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q79. A suit may be dismissed under order IX i) Where the summons is not served upon the defendant in consequence of the plaintiff’s failure to pay costs for service of summons (Rule 2) ii) Where neither the plaintiff not the defendant appears (Rule 3) iii) where plaintiff, after summons returned unserved, fail for 7 days to apply for fresh summons (Rule 5) iv) Where on the date fixed for hearing in a suit only defendant appears and he does not admit the plaintiff’s claim. (Rule 8) Codes:

• (1) I, II and II.
• (2) I, III and I.
• (3) II, II and IV.
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

O. 9 Rules 2, 3, 5 and 8 CPC.

Constitutional Law

Q80. The Ex-officio chairman of the council of state is?

• (1) The President
• (2) Speaker, Lok Sabha
• (3) Vice President ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Art. 64 — the Vice-President is ex officio Chairman of the Council of States.

Constitutional Law

Q81. Right to property in India is –

• (1) Fundamental Right
• (2) Constitutional Right ✔
• (3) Statutory Right
• (4) Legal Right

Answer: (2)

Art. 300A — a constitutional right since 1978.

Constitutional Law

Q82. Which of the following writs means to produce the body of a person?

• (1) Certiorari
• (2) Quo warranto
• (3) Prohibition
• (4) Habeas Corpus ✔

Answer: (4)

Habeas corpus — “produce the body”.

Constitutional Law

Q83. Restrictions may not be imposed on freedoms provided under Article 19 (1) (a) on this ground

• (1) Defamation
• (2) Public Order
• (3) Sedition ✔
• (4) Security of the state

Answer: (3)

Art. 19(2) does not list sedition as a ground.

Constitutional Law

Q84. Which right is guaranteed to citizens only?

• (1) Article 21
• (2) Article 20
• (3) Article 19 ✔
• (4) Article 25

Answer: (3)

Art. 19 is available only to citizens.

Constitutional Law

Q85. President can be removed on the ground of?

• (1) Proved Misbehaviour
• (2) Incapacity
• (3) Violation of Constitution ✔
• (4) All the above

Answer: (3)

Art. 61 — impeachment for violation of the Constitution.

Family Law

Q86. Who among the following cannot transfer an immovable property?

• (1) Hindu widow
• (2) Muslim widow ✔
• (3) Natural guardian of a minor.
• (4) Karta or manager of joint Hindu family

Answer: (2)

A Muslim widow holding her husband’s estate under the right of retention for unpaid dower has no title and cannot alienate it (Maina Bibi v. Chaudhri Vakil Ahmad, 1924).

Contract & Property

Q87. ‘The doctrine of Lis pendens ‘ was explained in the leading case of:

• (1) Bellamy Vs Sabine ✔
• (2) Cooper Vs Cooper
• (3) Streatfield v. Streatfield
• (4) Tulk v. Moxhay

Answer: (1)

Bellamy v. Sabine (1857).

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q88. When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means such an agreement is designated as:

• (1) Abetment by conspiracy
• (2) Abetment by Aid
• (3) Criminal conspiracy ✔
• (4) Abetment

Answer: (3)

s. 120A IPC.

Law now: Now s. 61 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q89. The provisions regarding sedition are given:

• (1) Under section 124 of the I.P.C
• (2) Under section 124-A of the I.P.C ✔
• (3) Under section 121-A of the I.P.C
• (4) Under section 130 of the I.P.C

Answer: (2)

s. 124A IPC.

Law now: In abeyance since 2022; BNS has no sedition offence (see s. 152).

Arbitration & ADR

Q90. Which among the following is not an ADR method under Section 89 of CPC 1908-

• (1) Mini Trial ✔
• (2) Judicial settlement Through lok adalat
• (3) Conciliation
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 89 CPC lists arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (including Lok Adalat) and mediation; not mini-trial.

Arbitration & ADR

Q91. What is the maximum number of Conciliators allowed in a conciliations proceeding:

• (1) 1
• (2) 2
• (3) 5
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 63 A&C Act — one, two or three conciliators.

Arbitration & ADR · Key corrected

Q92. What is the status of a settlement agreement in conciliation proceeding:

• (1) Non – binding
• (2) Same as a settlement award ✔
• (3) Unlike a settlement award
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 74 — a settlement agreement has the status of an arbitral award on agreed terms under s. 30.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Professional Ethics · Key corrected

Q93. Disciplinary Committee of Bar Council is Conferred the powers of Civil Court under code of Civil Procedure 1908 by-

• (1) Section 36 of Advocates Act 1961
• (2) Section 42 of Advocates Act 1961 ✔
• (3) Section 42 A- of Advocates Act 1961
• (4) Section 28 of Advocates Act 1961

Answer: (2)

s. 42 Advocates Act gives disciplinary committees the powers of a civil court.

Note: The published key gives (3); s. 42A extends those powers to the Bar Council of India and other committees.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q94. Which one of the following is a leading case on ‘Injuria Sine Damnum’?

• (1) Rylands Vs Fletcher
• (2) Ashby Vs White ✔
• (3) Donoghue v. Stevenson
• (4) All of the Above

Answer: (2)

Ashby v. White (1703).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q95. Which one is leading case on Strict Liability?

• (1) Allen v. Flood
• (2) Rylands Vs Fletcher ✔
• (3) Bourhill v. Young
• (4) Donoghue v. Stevenson

Answer: (2)

Rylands v. Fletcher (1868).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q96. The Latin word ‘Res Ipsa Laquitur means:

• (1) Things speaks its story itself. ✔
• (2) Where there is consent there is no injury.
• (3) Both (a) and (b)
• (4) None of the Above

Answer: (1)

Res ipsa loquitur — the thing speaks for itself.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q97. In which of the following cases the ‘Principal of common Employment’ was evolved for the first time?

• (1) Rylands Vs Fletcher
• (2) Priestley Vs Fowler ✔
• (3) Ashby Vs White
• (4) Wagon Mound

Answer: (2)

Priestley v. Fowler (1837).

Professional Ethics

Q98. The designation Senior Advocates’ is provided under

• (1) Section 16, Advocates Act 1961 ✔
• (2) Section 26, Advocates Act 1961
• (3) Section 6, Advocates Act 1961
• (4) Section 15, Advocates Act 1961

Answer: (1)

s. 16 Advocates Act — senior advocates.

Professional Ethics

Q99. Right to pre-audience is provided by

• (1) Section 33 of Advocates Act 1961
• (2) Section 23 of Advocates Act 1961 ✔
• (3) Section 16 of Advocates Act 1961
• (4) Section 36 of Advocates Act 1961

Answer: (2)

s. 23 Advocates Act — right of pre-audience.

Constitutional Law

Q100. The ‘Contempt of Court’ belongs to

• (1) Entry 77 of Union list and entry 14 of State list in the VIIth schedule of Constitution of India.
• (2) Entry 70 of union list and entry 40 of state list
• (3) Entry 67 of Union list and entry 13 of State list
• (4) None of these ✔

Answer: (4)

Contempt of court is in Entry 77, List I and Entry 14, List III (Concurrent), not the State List.