AIBE 11 (XI) 2017 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 100 Questions Solved

Read this first

• 4 published keys were corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 1 question was withdrawn or given grace marks. Where one option is still right in law, it is shown as the answer.
• 24 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

Administrative Law

Q1. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from-

• (1) French administration
• (2) British Administration
• (3) Swedish Administration ✔
• (4) German Administration.

Answer: (3)

The office of Ombudsman originated in Sweden (1809).

Administrative Law

Q2. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, an inquiry Commission is appointed by-

• (1) Central Government or State Government ✔
• (2) Union Public Services Commission
• (3) State Public commission
• (4) Supreme Court of India

Answer: (1)

s. 3 Commissions of Inquiry Act — the appropriate Government, Central or State, appoints the Commission.

Cyber Law / IT Act · Key corrected

Q3. Information Technology Act was enacted in-

• (1) 1988
• (2) 1996
• (3) 2000 ✔
• (4) 2004

Answer: (3)

The IT Act was enacted in 2000 (Act 21 of 2000).

Note: The published key gives (2), the year of the UNCITRAL Model Law on E- Commerce (1996).

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q4. Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective-

• (1) To provide legal sanction to all transaction for e- commerce
• (2) To facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the Government
• (3) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

The Act recognises e-commerce, enables e-filing with Government and amended the IPC and Evidence Act.

IPC / BNS

Q5. What is meant by Homicide –

• (1) Suicide by human being not at home
• (2) Suicide at home
• (3) Killing of a human being by another human being ✔
• (4) Killing of human being by animal

Answer: (3)

Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q6. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence

• (1) Under Section 274-276 of IPC
• (2) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
• (3) Under Section 272-273 of IPC ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

ss. 272-273 IPC — adulteration of food or drink, and sale of noxious food.

Law now: Now ss. 274-275 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q7. Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is

• (1) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
• (2) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
• (3) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
• (4) Death sentence ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 121 IPC — death or imprisonment for life.

Law now: Now s. 147 BNS.

IPC / BNS

Q8. Offences relating to elections are –

• (1) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
• (2) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment ✔
• (3) Are not covered by IPC
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Chapter IXA (ss. 171A-171I) was inserted in 1920.

IPC / BNS

Q9. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on

• (1) Wrongful restraint
• (2) Wrongful confinement
• (3) Outrage the modesty of a woman ✔
• (4) Maintenance to the divorced woman

Answer: (3)

Rupan Deol Bajaj v. K.P.S. Gill (1995) — outraging the modesty of a woman under s. 354.

Environmental Law

Q10. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates to

• (1) Water pollution
• (2) Air and water pollution
• (3) Noise and air pollution ✔
• (4) Water and noise pollution

Answer: (3)

Krishna Gopal v. State of M.P. (1986) — noise and air pollution from a factory, under s. 133 CrPC.

Professional Ethics · Key corrected · Withdrawn / Grace

Q11. What is the punishment for advocates if the established findings of the Bar Council is misappropriation –

• (1) Impose a fine
• (2) Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
• (3) Suspension from practice
• (4) All of the above

Answer: Withdrawn / grace marks

No single correct option: s. 35(3) Advocates Act allows reprimand, suspension or removal from the roll, but not a fine.

Note: The published key gives (4), which wrongly includes a fine.

Professional Ethics

Q12. On being aggrieved by the order of state Bar Council, one can appeal to

• (1) High Court
• (2) Supreme Court
• (3) Bar Council of India ✔
• (4) Indian Law Commission

Answer: (3)

s. 37 Advocates Act — appeal to the Bar Council of India.

Professional Ethics

Q13. Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates

• (1) Section 29
• (2) Section 35 ✔
• (3) Section 37
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 35 — punishment of advocates for misconduct.

Professional Ethics

Q14. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with-

• (1) Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the bar ✔
• (2) Qualification to become the Advocate General
• (3) Qualification to become the Solicitor General of India
• (4) (2) and (3)

Answer: (1)

s. 24 — persons who may be admitted as advocates on a State roll.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q15. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation

• (1) Insurance certificate
• (2) Medical examination
• (3) Medical Certificate
• (4) (2) and (3) ✔

Answer: (4)

Medical examination (s. 11) and the medical certificate decide the extent of injury.

Law now: Now the Employees’ Compensation Act, subsumed in the Code on Social Security, 2020.

Labour Law

Q16. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act, 1923 says that the commissioner shall have the power of –

• (1) A Court ✔
• (2) A Tribunal
• (3) A quasi judicial form
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 23 WC Act — the Commissioner has the powers of a civil court for evidence and attendance.

Labour Law

Q17. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is –

• (1) Industrial peace and economic justice
• (2) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
• (3) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

The Act aims at industrial peace, harmonious relations and preventing illegal strikes and lock-outs.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q18. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947provides the definition of –

• (1) Lock out
• (2) Lay off
• (3) Strike ✔
• (4) Hartal

Answer: (3)

s. 2(q) ID Act defines strike.

Law now: Now s. 2(zk) of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

Land Acquisition · Law changed

Q19. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from

• (1) 1st March, 1955
• (2) 1st March, 1986
• (3) 1st March, 1994
• (4) 1st March, 1894 ✔

Answer: (4)

The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force on 1 March 1894.

Law now: Replaced by the RFCTLARR Act, 2013.

Land Acquisition

Q20. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land means

• (1) Useful for residential purpose
• (2) Useful for commercial purpose
• (3) Useful for cultivation ✔
• (4) Useful for industrial purpose

Answer: (3)

Arable land is land fit for cultivation.

Taxation · Law changed

Q21. Section 154 under IT Act is;

• (1) For filing return of income
• (2) For filing return with late fee
• (3) Rectification of mistakes ✔
• (4) Appeal against the order passed by the IT

Answer: (3)

s. 154 Income-tax Act, 1961 — rectification of mistakes.

Law now: The Income-tax Act, 2025 has applied since 1 April 2026, with new section numbers.

Taxation

Q22. Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax Act

• (1) Any stock in trade
• (2) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
• (3) (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 2(14) excludes stock-in-trade and Special Bearer Bonds, 1991.

Arbitration & ADR

Q23. The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by

• (1) The Tribunal
• (2) Parties understanding to decide by mutual ✔
• (3) The petitioner
• (4) The Defendant

Answer: (2)

s. 22 A&C Act — the parties agree on the language; failing agreement, the tribunal decides.

Arbitration & ADR

Q24. The Arbitral proceedings shall stand terminated

• (1) On making on the final award
• (2) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
• (3) When the parties to the dispute agrees to
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 32 — by the final award or by the tribunal’s order, including where the parties agree.

Arbitration & ADR

Q25. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a

• (1) Order of district collector
• (2) Order of Income Tax commissioner
• (3) Decree of a civil court ✔
• (4) (1) and (2)

Answer: (3)

s. 21 Legal Services Authorities Act — a Lok Adalat award is deemed a civil court decree.

Arbitration & ADR

Q26. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Section 18-27 states

• (1) The Conducting of Arbitral proceedings ✔
• (2) Receipt and Written Communications
• (3) External of judicial intervention
• (4) Awarding final decision

Answer: (1)

Chapter V (ss. 18-27) — conduct of arbitral proceedings.

CrPC / BNSS

Q27. Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given state, under Section 271 of Cr.P.C.

• (1) State Government ✔
• (2) Central Government
• (3) Supreme Court of India
• (4) (1) and (2) Both

Answer: (1)

The State Government decides the language of courts other than the High Court.

Note: The provision is s. 272 CrPC, not s. 271.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q28. A decree can be –

• (1) Final
• (2) Preliminary
• (3) Only Preliminary not final
• (4) Either preliminary or final ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(2) CPC — a decree may be preliminary or final.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q29. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC-

• (1) Under Section 2 (6) of CPC ✔
• (2) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
• (3) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 2(6) CPC defines foreign judgment.

Constitutional Law

Q30. The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under

• (1) Article 310
• (2) Article 315 ✔
• (3) Article 320
• (4) Article 325

Answer: (2)

Art. 315 — Public Service Commissions for the Union and the States.

Constitutional Law

Q31. Right to personal liberty includes-

• (1) Right against custodial violence
• (2) Right of under trials to separate them from convicted
• (3) Right against Public hanging
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

All three have been read into Art. 21.

Constitutional Law

Q32. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is –

• (1) President ✔
• (2) Prime Minister
• (3) The Defence Minister
• (4) Chief Marshal

Answer: (1)

Art. 53(2) — supreme command of the Defence Forces vests in the President.

Constitutional Law

Q33. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is

• (1) 62 years
• (2) 60 years
• (3) 58 years
• (4) 65 years ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 124(2) — Supreme Court judges retire at 65.

Constitutional Law

Q34. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of-

• (1) Concurrent list. ✔
• (2) State list
• (3) Union list
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

Entry 2, List III — criminal procedure.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q35. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in-

• (1) Section 2 (a) of CrPC ✔
• (2) Section 2 (b) of CrPc
• (3) Section 2 (c) of CrPc
• (4) Section 20 of IPC

Answer: (1)

s. 2(a) CrPC.

Law now: Now s. 2(1)(b) BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q36. Under Section 21 of CrPC, Special Executive Magistrates may be appointed by the

• (1) Central Government
• (2) High Court
• (3) Supreme Court
• (4) State Government ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 21 CrPC — the State Government appoints Special Executive Magistrates.

Law now: Now s. 15 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q37. Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person

• (1) Under Section 49, CrPC
• (2) Under Section 50, CrPC
• (3) Under Section 51, CrPC ✔
• (4) Under Section 52, CrPC

Answer: (3)

s. 51 CrPC — search of arrested persons.

Law now: Now s. 49 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q38. The Special Court is-

• (1) Not subordinate to High Court ✔
• (2) Superior to High Court
• (3) Supplement to High Court
• (4) Equal to Supreme Court

Answer: (1)

Courts under the Special Courts Act, 1979 are presided over by High Court judges, with appeal to the Supreme Court.

Note: Most special courts under other statutes (NDPS, PC Act) are subordinate to the High Court.

CrPC / BNSS · Key corrected · Law changed

Q39. The powers under Section 159 of CrPC can be exercised by a magistrate-

• (1) When the police decides not to investigate the case ✔
• (2) When the investigation is still going on
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 159 CrPC — on the s. 157 report that police will not investigate, the Magistrate may direct investigation or hold a preliminary inquiry.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Law now: Now s. 178 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q40. Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 can be used in trial

• (1) For contradicting the witness ✔
• (2) For corroborating the witness
• (3) Incorporating in the charge sheet
• (4) Discharging the accused

Answer: (1)

s. 162 CrPC — only to contradict the witness.

Law now: Now s. 181 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q41. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided

• (1) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
• (2) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code ✔
• (3) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 190 CrPC — cognizance by Magistrates.

Law now: Now s. 210 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q42. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in CrPC

• (1) Under Section 214
• (2) Under Section 215
• (3) Under Section 216 ✔
• (4) Under Section 210

Answer: (3)

s. 216 CrPC — the court may alter or add to the charge.

Law now: Now s. 239 BNSS.

Evidence / BSA

Q43. Under Sections 59 to 60 of Indian Act the oral statement Evidence means

• (1) All statements made before the Court by the witness ✔
• (2) All statement made before the police by the accused
• (3) All statement of facts which a witness heard to say
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 3 — oral evidence means statements the Court permits or requires witnesses to make before it.

Evidence / BSA

Q44. Under the Evidence Act, Court includes

• (1) All Judges
• (2) All Magistrates
• (3) All Arbitrators
• (4) (1) and (2) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3 — “Court” includes all Judges and Magistrates, but not arbitrators.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q45. Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of

• (1) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
• (2) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
• (3) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 65B Evidence Act — admissibility of electronic records.

Law now: Now s. 63 BSA.

Evidence / BSA

Q46. Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act

• (1) Document forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
• (2) Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
• (3) Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office ✔
• (4) Documents and circulars from University of Delhi

Answer: (3)

s. 74 — an advocate’s or notary’s private correspondence is not a public document.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q47. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides

• (1) Possession of driving licence while driving
• (2) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
• (3) Revoking driving licence if drunk drive is detected
• (4) State government’s power to control the road transport ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 67 MV Act, 1988 — power of the State Government to control road transport.

Family Law

Q48. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption

• (1) Must be a Hindu only ✔
• (2) A Hindu or Jew
• (3) May be Hindu or Christian
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 10(i) HAMA — the person adopted must be a Hindu.

Family Law

Q49. Polygamy was permitted in Hindus before the year

• (1) 1956
• (2) 1954
• (3) 1955 ✔
• (4) 1978

Answer: (3)

s. 5(i) HMA, 1955 made monogamy compulsory for Hindus.

Family Law

Q50. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter Kriti

• (1) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it ✔
• (2) The marriage is void
• (3) The marriage is valid only if the Court approves it
• (4) The marriage is valid only the Panchayat permits

Answer: (1)

Uncle-niece is a prohibited degree (s. 3(g) HMA); the marriage is void unless custom permits it.

Environmental Law

Q51. Within the purview of water Act, the meaning of stream is defined as-

• (1) Includes a river but not a water course
• (2) Includes a water course but not a river
• (3) Includes river and water course, but not subterranean waters
• (4) Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(j) Water Act — stream includes rivers, water courses and subterranean waters.

Company Law & NI Act

Q52. Cheque bouncing cases charged under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trained by

• (1) Bank Tribunal
• (2) Consumer Forum
• (3) Magistrate Court ✔
• (4) Sessions Court

Answer: (3)

s. 142 NI Act — tried by a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate First Class.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q53. Which of the following is not a civil nature –

• (1) Right to take out procession
• (2) Right to worship in a temple
• (3) Right to Caste and Religion ✔
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation to s. 9 CPC — questions purely of caste or religion are not of a civil nature.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q54. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies –

• (1) The suit is liable to be dismissed ✔
• (2) The suit is liable to be stayed
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 11 CPC bars the suit, which is dismissed.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q55. Under Section 16 CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a court whose local jurisdiction is –

• (1) Where the property is situated ✔
• (2) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 16 CPC — where the property is situated.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q56. Pleading means –

• (1) Plaint and written statement ✔
• (2) Plaint only
• (3) Written statement
• (4) Oral statement by the pleader

Answer: (1)

O. 6 R. 1 CPC — pleading means plaint or written statement.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q57. On failure to file a written statement, under order VIII rule 10 of CPC the court may

• (1) pass any other order
• (2) Order for striking off the decree
• (3) May pronounce the judgement at once
• (4) Any of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

O. 8 R. 10 CPC — the court shall pronounce judgment or make such order as it thinks fit.

Note: Option (2) is loosely worded; the intended answer is (4).

Contract & Property

Q58. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the government

• (1) Section 5
• (2) Section 6 ✔
• (3) Section 7
• (4) Section 8

Answer: (2)

s. 6(2)(b) SRA — no suit under s. 6 lies against the Government.

Intellectual Property

Q59. The Patent Act became a law in

• (1) 1970 ✔
• (2) 1975
• (3) 1996
• (4) 1966

Answer: (1)

The Patents Act, 1970.

Constitutional Law

Q60. Which one is not a fundamental right?

• (1) Right to Freedom of Assembly
• (2) Right to Property ✔
• (3) Right to equality
• (4) Right to freedom of speech and Expression

Answer: (2)

The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from Part III; it is now Art. 300A.

Constitutional Law

Q61. In Maneka Gandhi’s case it was observed that

• (1) Confiscation of the passport was correct
• (2) Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
• (3) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 21, but the confiscation of the passport was not in accordance with law ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Maneka Gandhi (1978) — the right to go abroad is part of personal liberty under Art. 21, and the procedure must be fair.

Constitutional Law

Q62. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement

• (1) In the interest of general public ✔
• (2) In the interest of political leaders
• (3) In the interest of women safety
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Art. 19(5) — in the interests of the general public or of Scheduled Tribes.

Constitutional Law

Q63. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of constitution

• (1) A company
• (2) A corporation
• (3) Only citizens ✔
• (4) Citizens and aliens

Answer: (3)

Art. 19 rights are available only to citizens.

Constitutional Law

Q64. Clause (3) of Article 20 of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be –

• (1) An accused
• (2) A witness
• (3) A witness against himself ✔
• (4) Hostile witness

Answer: (3)

Art. 20(3) — no accused shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.

Constitutional Law

Q65. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly known as

• (1) Judges Transfer case
• (2) Illegal Detention case
• (3) Mandal Commission case ✔
• (4) Constitutional case

Answer: (3)

Indra Sawhney (1992) is the Mandal Commission case.

Constitutional Law

Q66. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted

• (1) NK Chanda V/s State of Haryana
• (2) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal Corporation ✔
• (3) PV. Narasimha Rao V/s Union of India
• (4) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand

Answer: (2)

Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) — right to livelihood of pavement dwellers.

Company Law & NI Act

Q67. The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is

• (1) 5
• (2) 10
• (3) 7 ✔
• (4) 27

Answer: (3)

s. 3 Companies Act, 2013 — seven persons for a public company.

Company Law & NI Act · Law changed

Q68. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives

• (1) Certification of incorporation ✔
• (2) Letter of intent
• (3) Occupation certificate
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

A private company could start business on incorporation.

Law now: Since 2019, s. 10A requires a declaration of commencement of business, filed within 180 days, before a company with share capital starts business.

Contract & Property

Q69. Which of the following is not an essential of a contract of guarantee

• (1) Concurrence of three parties fairies.
• (2) Surety’s distinct promise to answerable
• (3) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
• (4) Existence of only one contract ✔

Answer: (4)

A guarantee involves three parties and three contracts, not one.

Contract & Property

Q70. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section

• (1) 180 of the Act
• (2) 181 of the Act
• (3) 182 of the Act ✔
• (4) 183 of the Act

Answer: (3)

s. 182 Contract Act defines agent.

Company Law & NI Act · Law changed

Q71. What is the maximum number of partners in Banking business

• (1) 8
• (2) 10 ✔
• (3) 12
• (4) 16

Answer: (2)

s. 11 Companies Act, 1956 capped a banking partnership at ten.

Law now: Under s. 464 of the 2013 Act and Rule 10, the cap is 50 for any business.

Contract & Property

Q72. A person who gives the guarantee is called

• (1) Bailee
• (2) Creditor
• (3) Debtor
• (4) Surety ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 126 Contract Act — the person giving the guarantee is the surety.

Contract & Property

Q73. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods

• (1) Lien
• (2) Stoppage in transit
• (3) Right of resale
• (4) To ascertain price ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 46 Sale of Goods Act — lien, stoppage in transit and resale; not ascertaining the price.

Contract & Property

Q74. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides

• (1) Injunctions ✔
• (2) Court’s discretion on specific performance
• (3) Cancellation of instruments
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

Part III (ss. 36-42) SRA — preventive relief by injunction.

Constitutional Law

Q75. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under

• (1) Article 226 of constitution and Article 32 of the Constitution
• (2) Under Section 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
• (3) (1) and (2) Both ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

PIL lies under Arts. 32 and 226; s. 133 CrPC was used for public nuisance in Ratlam Municipality (1980).

Constitutional Law

Q76. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on

• (1) Free Legal Aid
• (2) Bonded labours
• (3) Judges Transfer ✔
• (4) Illegal detention

Answer: (3)

S.P. Gupta (1981) — First Judges’ Transfer case.

Note: Overruled by the Second Judges case (1993).

Environmental Law

Q77. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved

• (1) Basic future and Basic structure doctrine
• (2) Public Trust doctrine ✔
• (3) Separation of power doctrine
• (4) Public Interest doctrine

Answer: (2)

M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997) — public trust doctrine.

Constitutional Law · Law changed

Q78. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related to

• (1) Sexual harassment at workplace ✔
• (2) Protection civil rights
• (3) Uniform civil code
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) — sexual harassment at the workplace.

Law now: Now governed by the POSH Act, 2013.

Contract & Property

Q79. Courts power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act

• (1) Under Section 20
• (2) Under Section 21. ✔
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 21 SRA — power to award compensation in certain cases.

Evidence / BSA

Q80. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act

• (1) By the opinion of Experts
• (2) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
• (3) After police verification
• (4) Both (1) and (2) ✔

Answer: (4)

ss. 45 and 47 — expert opinion and the opinion of a person acquainted with the handwriting.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q81. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides

• (1) No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
• (2) Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
• (3) Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
• (4) Both (1) and (3) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 26 — a confession in police custody is inadmissible unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

Law now: Now s. 23(2) BSA.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q82. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes

• (1) Oral evidence
• (2) Documentary evidence
• (3) Electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3 — oral and documentary evidence, including electronic records.

Law now: Now s. 2(1)(e) BSA.

Intellectual Property

Q83. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999 defines the meaning of

• (1) Licence
• (2) Trade Mark ✔
• (3) Registration
• (4) Cancellation

Answer: (2)

s. 2(1)(zb) Trade Marks Act, 1999 defines trade mark.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q84. Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC

• (1) Section 376 (a)
• (2) Section 376 (b)
• (3) Section 354 ✔
• (4) Section 498

Answer: (3)

s. 354 IPC.

Law now: Now s. 74 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q85. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code) deals with the crime of

• (1) House breaking
• (2) Dishonest misappropriation of property
• (3) Forgery ✔
• (4) Forgery with cheating

Answer: (3)

s. 463 IPC defines forgery.

Law now: Now s. 336 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q86. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under

• (1) Section 503 to 506 ✔
• (2) Section 509 to 516
• (3) Section 319 to 329
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

ss. 503-506 IPC.

Law now: Now s. 351 BNS.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q87. The term Tort is a-

• (1) Latin Word
• (2) French Word ✔
• (3) English Word
• (4) Italian Word

Answer: (2)

“Tort” is a French word, from the Latin tortum (twisted).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q88. In Tort, what is vicarious liability?

• (1) A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
• (2) A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person ✔
• (3) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Vicarious liability is liability for another’s wrongful act.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q89. Under Section 2 (1) (f) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, defect is meant by any fault, imperfection or Short coming in ………….. in relation to the goods

• (1) Quality and Quantity
• (2) Potency
• (3) Purity or Standard
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(1)(f) CPA 1986 — quality, quantity, potency, purity or standard.

Law now: Now s. 2(10) CPA 2019.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q90. Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God

• (1) Storm and cyclone
• (2) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
• (3) Lightning and thunder
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Storms, extraordinary floods and lightning are all acts of God.

Taxation · Law changed

Q91. Income Tax Act was enacted in

• (1) 1951
• (2) 1961 ✔
• (3) 1971
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

The Income-tax Act, 1961.

Law now: Replaced by the Income-tax Act, 2025 from 1 April 2026.

Taxation

Q92. Income is defined under Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act as

• (1) Profits and gains
• (2) Dividends
• (3) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(24) — income includes profits, dividends and voluntary contributions to a trust.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q93. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on

• (1) The High Court
• (2) The Court of Civil Judge
• (3) The District Judge
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 80 CPC binds the plaintiff suing the Government or a public officer, not any particular court.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q94. Temporary Injunction can be granted

• (1) Suo moto
• (2) Ex parte ✔
• (3) Hearing both parties
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

O. 39 R. 3 CPC allows a temporary injunction ex parte in urgent cases.

Note: It is normally granted after notice to the other side.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q95. Right to Appeal is a –

• (1) Natural right
• (2) Inherent right
• (3) Statutory right ✔
• (4) Delegated right

Answer: (3)

A right of appeal exists only if a statute gives it.

Family Law

Q96. The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in

• (1) 2000
• (2) 2001
• (3) 2002 ✔
• (4) 2004

Answer: (3)

The Indian Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002.

Family Law

Q97. Which is the correct statement-

• (1) There can be a will without a codicil ✔
• (2) There can be a codicil without a will
• (3) Every will has a codicil
• (4) A codicil proceeds a will

Answer: (1)

A codicil explains or alters a will, so a will can exist without one but not vice versa.

Family Law · Key corrected

Q98. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, Will should be attested by-

• (1) By two witnesses
• (2) By two or more witness ✔
• (3) Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 63(c) Indian Succession Act — attestation by two or more witnesses.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Family Law

Q99. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan Law refers to

• (1) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
• (2) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
• (3) Attain of puberty
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Iddat is the waiting period after divorce or the husband’s death.

Family Law

Q100. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any District is appointed by

• (1) State Government ✔
• (2) The Central Government
• (3) The Clergyman of the Church
• (4) High Court Judges

Answer: (1)

s. 7 Indian Christian Marriage Act — the State Government appoints Marriage Registrars.