AIBE 10 (X) 2017 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 99 Questions Solved

Read this first

• Question 33 is missing from the available copy of this paper.
• 2 published keys were corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 23 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q1. Which of the following sections deals with the provisions relating to maximum period for which an under trial prisoner can be detained-

• (1) 436
• (2) 436-a ✔
• (3) 437-a
• (4) 437

Answer: (2)

s. 436A CrPC — an undertrial who has served half the maximum sentence is released on personal bond.

Law now: Now s. 479 BNSS, which allows release of a first-time offender after one-third.

Professional Ethics

Q2. Which of the following case is leading case in term of deliberate delay in filing of the suit resulting in huge losses to the complainant

• (1) Prof. Krishanraj Goswami VS. Vishwanath D. Mukashikar ✔
• (2) Pratap Narayan vs. Y. P. Raheja
• (3) Babulal Jain vs. Subhash Jain
• (4) Johan D’souza vs. Edward Ani.

Answer: (1)

Cited as the leading case on an advocate’s deliberate delay in filing a client’s suit, causing loss.

Constitutional Law

Q3. Which writ is issued by the Court to quash the wrongful order of a lower Court

• (1) Mandamus
• (2) Quo warranto
• (3) Prohibition
• (4) Certiorari. ✔

Answer: (4)

Certiorari quashes an order already made by an inferior court or tribunal.

Constitutional Law

Q4. Filing with the Court, to object owns or another’s imprisonment is called?

• (1) Writ of Quo Warranto
• (2) Habeas Corpus ✔
• (3) Writ of Prohibition
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (2)

Habeas corpus challenges unlawful detention, by the detenu or anyone on his behalf.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q5. In which of the following cases a Set Off can be claimed?

• (1) ‘A’ owes the partnership firm of ‘B’ & ‘C’ Rs. 1000/- B. dies leaving C surviving. A sues C for a debt of Rs. 1500/- due in his separate character. C wants to set off the debt of Rs. ✔
• (2) A sues B for Rs. 20,000/-. B wants to set off the claim for damages for breach of contract for specific performance.
• (3) Both 1 & 2
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (1)

Illustration (d) to O. 8 R. 6 CPC — C may set off the firm’s debt; unliquidated damages in (2) cannot be legally set off.

Environmental Law

Q6. Which is the leading case environment

• (1) M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India ✔
• (2) Union of India vs. H.S. Dhillon
• (3) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (1)

The M.C. Mehta line of cases is the leading body of environmental law in India.

Administrative Law

Q7. The maxim – ‘audi alterm partem’ denotes

• (1) No one shall be judge of his own cause
• (2) No one shall be condemned unheard ✔
• (3) Rights are better than duties
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (2)

Audi alteram partem — no one shall be condemned unheard.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q8. Under which Section of CrPC the Assistant Public Prosecutor is appointed

• (1) 13
• (2) 20
• (3) 24
• (4) 25 ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 25 CrPC — Assistant Public Prosecutors.

Law now: Now s. 19 BNSS.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q9. A person cannot be a next friend, a guardian of a person if:

• (1) He is a minor
• (2) He is an opposite party in the suit
• (3) He has not given consent in writing
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

O. 32 R. 4 CPC — a guardian or next friend must be a major, without adverse interest, and must consent in writing.

Jurisprudence

Q10. To make the criminal harmless by supplying him those things which he lacks and to cure him of those drawbacks which made him to commit crime is known as

• (1) Expiatory or penance theory of punishment
• (2) Deterrent theory or preventive theory of punishment
• (3) Reformative or rehabilitative or corrective theory of punishment ✔
• (4) Retributive theory of punishment

Answer: (3)

The reformative theory aims to cure the offender and rehabilitate him.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q11. Which of the following sections enables the Court to cancel the bond and bail bond

• (1) 446-a ✔
• (2) 446
• (3) 448
• (4) 450.

Answer: (1)

s. 446A CrPC — cancellation of bond and bail bond.

Law now: Now s. 492 BNSS.

Evidence / BSA

Q12. In joint trial, the evidentiary value of confession of a co-accused affecting himself and others, has been discussed by the Supreme Court in-

• (1) Kashmira Singh vs. State of MP ✔
• (2) Sate of UP vs. Deorman Upadhyay
• (3) Ram Bharose vs. State of UP
• (4) Rameshwar vs. State of Rajasthan.

Answer: (1)

Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P. (1952) — a co- accused’s confession only lends assurance to other evidence.

Land Acquisition

Q13. Under Section 25 of the Land Acquisition Act, the amount compensation awarded by the Court-

• (1) Shall not be less than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section ✔
• (2) Shall not be equal to the amount awarded by the Collector under Section
• (3) Shall not be more than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section II
• (4) All of the above.

Answer: (1)

s. 25 LA Act, 1894 — the court’s award shall not be less than the Collector’s award under s. 11.

Law now: The 1894 Act was replaced by the RFCTLARR Act, 2013 from 1 January 2014.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q14. Where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding Rs. 100, against this order where an appeal shall lie’:

• (1) In the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
• (2) In the Court of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
• (3) Both 1 and 2
• (4) None of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 376(c) CrPC — no appeal lies where a first-class Magistrate passes only a fine up to Rs. 100.

Law now: Now s. 417 BNSS.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q15. What is the maximum number of witness which can be produced in a case

• (1) 5
• (2) 10
• (3) 15
• (4) No limit. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 134 Evidence Act — no particular number of witnesses is required.

Law now: Now s. 139 BSA.

Taxation · Law changed

Q16. Income which accrue or arise outside India but are directly received into India are taxable in case of

• (1) Residents only
• (2) Both ordinarily residents and non- resident
• (3) Non-resident
• (4) All the assesses. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 5 Income-tax Act — income received in India is taxable for every assessee, resident or not.

Law now: The Income-tax Act, 2025 applies from 1 April 2026 and keeps the same scope rule.

Contract & Property · Law changed

Q17. A contract can be specifically enforced

• (1) Where compensation is adequate relief for the non- performance of the contract
• (2) Where the contract by its nature is determinable
• (3) Where it involves the performance of continuous duty which the Court cannot supervise
• (4) None of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 14 SRA (pre-2018) barred specific performance in each of these cases.

Law now: After the 2018 Amendment, adequacy of compensation is no longer a bar, so (1) would now be enforceable.

Contract & Property

Q18. A contract of ‘indemnity’ under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, has been defined in Section:

• (1) 124 ✔
• (2) 123
• (3) 125
• (4) 126

Answer: (1)

s. 124 Contract Act defines a contract of indemnity.

Taxation

Q19. “Which of the following belong to the category of direct tax

• (1) Goods and Services Tax
• (2) Excise duty and customs duty
• (3) Income tax and gift tax ✔
• (4) All of the above.

Answer: (3)

Income tax and gift tax are direct taxes; GST, excise and customs are indirect.

Note: Gift tax was abolished in 1998.

Family Law

Q20. In which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the Law of Mitakshara has been incorporated

• (1) Section 8
• (2) Section 7
• (3) Section 9
• (4) Section 6 ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 6 HSA deals with Mitakshara coparcenary property.

Professional Ethics

Q21. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Disciplinary Committee of the Bar Council of India under Section 36 or 37 of the Advocates Act, may prefer an appeal to the:

• (1) High Court.
• (2) Supreme Court ✔
• (3) State Government
• (4) Central Government

Answer: (2)

s. 38 Advocates Act — appeal to the Supreme Court.

Arbitration & ADR

Q22. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes:

• (1) Process of Conciliation ✔
• (2) Process of Arbitration
• (3) Enforcement of Foreign Awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
• (4) All the above.

Answer: (1)

Part III (ss. 61-81) governs conciliation.

Constitutional Law

Q23. Recently, in which case the Kerala High Court held that a University Grant Commission criterion which allowed certain relaxation in marks to reserved categories as violation of Article 16 (1) of the Constitution

• (1) Nair Service Society vs. UGC, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W) ✔
• (2) CBSE vs. UGC, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W)
• (3) UGC vs. State of Kerala, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W) ·
• (4) UGC vs. Secretary of State, WP (C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W).

Answer: (1)

Nair Service Society v. UGC (Kerala HC, 2016).

Family Law

Q24. Maintenance application under Section 18 (2) of Hama is filed in-

• (1) Matrimonial Court
• (2) District Court ✔
• (3) High Court
• (4) Any of the above.

Answer: (2)

A maintenance claim under HAMA is a civil suit before the District Court.

Note: Where a Family Court is set up, it has exclusive jurisdiction (s. 7 Family Courts Act).

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q25. In relation to Relevancy of Character in civil cases, which of the following is not correct

• (1) It is not at all relevant ✔
• (2) It is relevant when it affects award of damage
• (3) It is relevant when character is itself in issue
• (4) It is relevant when it appears from facts otherwise relevant

Answer: (1)

s. 52 and s. 55 Evidence Act — character is relevant in civil cases when in issue, when it affects damages, or when it appears from relevant facts.

Law now: Now ss. 46 and 49 BSA.

Contract & Property

Q26. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performances of contract are provided in which section of Specific Relief Act:

• (1) 27
• (2) 28 ✔
• (3) 29
• (4) 30

Answer: (2)

s. 28 SRA — where the purchaser or lessee fails to pay under a decree for specific performance, the vendor or lessor may have the contract rescinded.

Note: Personal bars to relief are in s. 16.

Environmental Law

Q27. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, came into force on

• (1) 18th November, 1986
• (2) 19th November, 1986. ✔
• (3) 20th November, 1986
• (4) 21st November, 1986

Answer: (2)

The Environment (Protection) Act came into force on 19 November 1986.

Family Law

Q28. A Hindu’s widow, if there are more than one, shall take

• (1) One share each
• (2) One share for all the widows ✔
• (3) One share each to the maximum of two shares, if there are more than two widows
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (2)

s. 10, Rule 1 HSA — all the widows together take one share.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q29. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team to serve as National Agency for incident response is constituted under section

• (1) 71 of IT Act
• (2) 70 of IT Act
• (3) 70 (a) of IT Act
• (4) 70 (b) of IT Act ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 70B IT Act — CERT-In is the national agency for incident response.

Constitutional Law

Q30. The provision relating to Abolition of Untouchability is given in

• (1) Article 23
• (2) Article 24
• (3) Article 17 ✔
• (4) Article 15

Answer: (3)

Art. 17 abolishes untouchability.

Constitutional Law

Q31. Under which Supreme Court judgment, action of the President to summon, prorogue and dissolve either of the houses of the Parliament, shall be unconstitutional if acted without advice of Council of Ministers-

• (1) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain, A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
• (2) Anandan vs. Chief Secretary, A.I.R. 1966 S.C 657s
• (3) Rao vs. Indira Gandhi, A.I.R. 1971 S.C. 1002 ✔
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (3)

U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi (1971) — the President must always act with a Council of Ministers.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q32. Under Section 114, a person can apply for review of judgment when:

• (1) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed, but no appeal has been preferred.
• (2) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which no appeal is allowed.
• (3) He is aggrieved by a decision on a reference from a Court of small causes.
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

O. 47 R. 1 CPC lists all three grounds of standing for review.

General Knowledge

Q34. The term sabbatical is connected with-

• (1) Paid leave for study ✔
• (2) Paternity leave
• (3) Maternity leave
• (4) Quarantine leave.

Answer: (1)

A sabbatical is paid leave for study or research.

IPC / BNS

Q35. ‘A’, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of ‘Z’, who suffers under a painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death & intending in good faith Z’s benefit performs that operation on Z with Z’s consent. A has committed no offence, it is contained in-

• (1) Section 88 of the IPC ✔
• (2) Section 89 of the IPC
• (3) Section 90 of the IPC
• (4) Section 87 of the IPC.

Answer: (1)

Illustration to s. 88 IPC (s. 26 BNS) — act done in good faith for the person’s benefit, with consent.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q36. Under Order 33, an indigent is allowed to prosecute any suit, provided he satisfied certain conditions. Which of the following is not such a condition?

• (1) He is not possessed of sufficient means to enable him to pay the fees prescribed for the plaint in such suit
• (2) He is not entitled to property worth Rs. 1000
• (3) He has no sufficient means for his livelihood ✔
• (4) He may present the application for permission to sue as an indigent either himself or through an authorized agent.

Answer: (3)

O. 33 R. 1 CPC — the tests are means to pay the court fee or, where none is prescribed, property under Rs. 1,000; lack of means of livelihood is not a test.

Note: The published key gives (2), which is itself a condition in Explanation I.

IPC / BNS

Q37. The distinction between Sections 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill, J. in –

• (1) Reg vs. Guruchand Gope
• (2) Reg vs. Govinda ✔
• (3) Reg vs. Hayward
• (4) Govind vs. Reg.

Answer: (2)

R. v. Govinda (1876) — Melvill J. tabulated the distinction between ss. 299 and 300.

Evidence / BSA

Q38. Pakala Narayan Swami vs. Emperor is a leading case on

• (1) Dying Declaration ✔
• (2) Confession
• (3) Accomplice
• (4) Expert witness.

Answer: (1)

Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor (1939) — “circumstances of the transaction” in a dying declaration.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q39. The provisions relating to compoundable offence is provided under Section

• (1) 319
• (2) 320 ✔
• (3) 265 (d)
• (4) 321

Answer: (2)

s. 320 CrPC — compounding of offences.

Law now: Now s. 359 BNSS.

IPC / BNS

Q40. The chief elements necessary to constitute a crime are

• (1) A human being
• (2) An evil intent
• (3) Injury to another human being or society
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

A human being, mens rea, actus reus and injury together constitute a crime.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q41. A decree can be transferred for execution to another Court:

• (1) If the judgment debtor actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain, within the local limits of jurisdiction of such Court.
• (2) If the judgment debtor has property sufficient to satisfy the decree within the limits of that Court.
• (3) If the decree directs the sale or delivery of immovable property situated outside the local limits of jurisdiction of the Court which passed it.
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 39 CPC — all these are grounds to transfer a decree for execution.

Family Law

Q42. What should be the difference of age under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, if a female adopts male

• (1) 21 years ✔
• (2) 25 years
• (3) 18 years
• (4) 16 years

Answer: (1)

s. 11(iv) HAMA — a female adopting a male must be at least 21 years older.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q43. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act, provides that a child would be treated as legitimate if after dissolution of marriage, he/she has been born within

• (1) 180 days
• (2) 270 days
• (3) 280 days ✔
• (4) 300 days

Answer: (3)

s. 112 Evidence Act — birth within 280 days after dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried.

Law now: Now s. 116 BSA.

CrPC / BNSS

Q44. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India opined that “bail is the surety and jail is an exception”

• (1) Joginder Kumar vs. State of U. P.
• (2) Moti Ram vs. State of M.P. ✔
• (3) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
• (4) State of W. B. vs. D.K. Basu.

Answer: (2)

Moti Ram v. State of M.P. (1978), following State of Rajasthan v. Balchand (1977) — bail is the rule, jail the exception.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q45. Which section of Indian Evidence Act is based on English Doctrine of Res Gestae

• (1) 5
• (2) 6 ✔
• (3) 7
• (4) 8.

Answer: (2)

s. 6 Evidence Act embodies res gestae.

Law now: Now s. 4 BSA.

Evidence / BSA

Q46. Which of the following statement is correct

• (1) A confession made by an accused to the police officer is relevant
• (2) A confession made by an accused in police custody to a Magistrate is not relevant
• (3) A confession made by an accused in the police custody and discovery made from the information received from confession, both confession and discovery are relevant
• (4) None of the above is correct. ✔

Answer: (4)

A confession to police is irrelevant (s. 25); one to a Magistrate in custody is relevant (s. 26); only the part leading to discovery is provable (s. 27).

Contract & Property

Q47. A perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree at the hearing and upon the—

• (1) Demand of the party
• (2) Discretion of the Court
• (3) Merit of the suit ✔
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (3)

s. 37(2) SRA — a perpetual injunction is granted by decree at the hearing and upon the merits.

Company Law & NI Act

Q48. Liability of drawer to compensate the drawee in case of dishonor is primarily provided under-

• (1) Section 29 (a)
• (2) Section 29
• (3) Section 30 ✔
• (4) Section 31.

Answer: (3)

s. 30 NI Act — liability of the drawer.

Company Law & NI Act

Q49. Who are the partners in a bill of exchange?

• (1) Drawer & Drawee
• (2) Payee
• (3) Both 1 and 2 ✔
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (3)

s. 5 NI Act — drawer, drawee and payee are the parties to a bill.

Constitutional Law

Q50. The theoretical powers to amend the Constitution, has been given to the Members of Parliament and State Legislatures by

• (1) Article 358
• (2) Article 368 ✔
• (3) Article 378
• (4) No such powers.

Answer: (2)

Art. 368 — power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q51. Under Section 18 of the Indian Evidence Act, the admission of which of the following person is not admissible against the other

• (1) One of the plaintiffs
• (2) One of the defendants ✔
• (3) Agents of the parties
• (4) Statement of the third party.

Answer: (2)

An admission by one defendant binds him but is not evidence against a co-defendant without a joint interest.

Law now: Now s. 16 BSA.

Administrative Law

Q52. According to Republic Act No. 6770, which of these powers is not provided to office of Ombudsman

• (1) Prosecutory power
• (2) Function to adopt, institute and implement preventive measures ✔
• (3) Public assistant functions
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (2)

Republic Act No. 6770 (Philippine Ombudsman Act, 1989) — the paper treats preventive measures as outside the listed powers.

Note: A foreign-law question; unlikely to recur.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q53. A reference can be made during the pendency:

• (1) The subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on · a question of law. ✔
• (2) The subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of evidence
• (3) The subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of fact
• (4) The subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of Court procedure.

Answer: (1)

s. 113 and O. 46 CPC — reference on a question of law.

Constitutional Law

Q54. Pre-emption on the ground of Shafie -i-Jar was declared unconstitutional in-

• (1) Bhau Ram vs. Baij Nath ✔
• (2) Govind Dayal vs. Inayatullah
• (3) Bhagawan Das vs. Chetram
• (4) Ram Saran Lall vs. Mst. Domini Kuer.

Answer: (1)

Bhau Ram v. Baij Nath (1962) — pre-emption on vicinage violates Art. 19(1)(f).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q55. Under which section of CPC, option for settlement of dispute is provided outside the Court?

• (1) 80(1)
• (2) 89(2)
• (3) 89(1) ✔
• (4) 80 (2).

Answer: (3)

s. 89(1) CPC — settlement of disputes outside court.

Labour Law · Key corrected

Q56. Government employees may refer their unresolved grievances and labor dispute to

• (1) Internal Labor Department
• (2) Bureau of Labor Relations
• (3) Public Sector Labor – Management Council ✔
• (4) Department of Labor.

Answer: (3)

s. 16 of Philippine Executive Order 180 (1987) — unresolved disputes of government employees go to the Public Sector Labor-Management Council.

Note: The published key gives (2). A foreign-law question.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q57. “Dealer” under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 includes a person who is engaged

• (1) In building bodies for attachment to chassis; or
• (2) In the repair of motor vehicles; or
• (3) In the business of hypothecation, leasing or hire purchase of motor vehicle;
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(8) MV Act — “dealer” includes all three.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q58. Under Section 115, in the exercise of its revisional jurisdiction, a High Court can do which of the following things:

• (1) To call for the record of any case which has been decided by any Court, subordinate to the High Court. ✔
• (2) To vary/reverse any decree or order against which an appeal lies to the High Court.
• (3) Both 1 & 2
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (1)

s. 115 CPC — the High Court may call for the record of a case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies to it.

Note: Revision does not lie where an appeal lies, so (2) is wrong.

Constitutional Law

Q59. PIL is criticised on the ground of

• (1) Private motive
• (2) Political ends
• (3) Tremendous increase in the litigation
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

All three are common criticisms of PIL.

Company Law & NI Act

Q60. The undertaking contained in a promissory note, to pay a certain sum of money is:

• (1) Conditional
• (2) Unconditional ✔
• (3) May be conditional or unconditional depending upon the circumstances
• (4) All of the above.

Answer: (2)

s. 4 NI Act — an unconditional undertaking to pay.

Constitutional Law

Q61. The Right of Equality before the law under Article 14, is subject to the restriction of

• (1) Public order and morality
• (2) Reasonable classification ✔
• (3) Reasonable restriction
• (4) Reasonable situations.

Answer: (2)

Art. 14 permits reasonable classification, not class legislation.

Company Law & NI Act

Q62. ‘A’ does not fall under the clause of Memorandum of Association ‘A’ here is:

• (1) Subscription
• (2) Director ✔
• (3) Capital
• (4) Situation.

Answer: (2)

The memorandum has name, situation, objects, liability, capital and subscription clauses; there is no director clause.

Intellectual Property

Q63. Which is not included within the meaning of artistic work under Copyright Act:

• (1) Drawing
• (2) Work of architecture
• (3) Work of craftsmanship
• (4) Work of carpenter. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(c) Copyright Act — drawings, architecture and artistic craftsmanship are covered.

Constitutional Law

Q64. When a bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the same?

• (1) Bill approved
• (2) Law ✔
• (3) Bill exercised for administration
• (4) Government procedures.

Answer: (2)

A Bill passed by Parliament and assented to by the President becomes law (an Act).

Family Law

Q65. Which of the following heirs is not class 1 heir under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956

• (1) Son
• (2) Widow
• (3) Father ✔
• (4) Mother.

Answer: (3)

The father is a Class II heir under the Schedule to the HSA.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q66. Which one of the following is known as Consumer Disputes Redressal Agency?

• (1) District Forum
• (2) State Commission
• (3) National Commission
• (4) All the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(1)(h) CPA 1986 — District Forum, State and National Commissions.

Law now: Now the District, State and National Commissions under the 2019 Act.

Interpretation of Statutes

Q67. The rule is that penal statutes must be constructed

• (1) Liberally
• (2) Strictly ✔
• (3) Golden rule
• (4) Mischievous.

Answer: (2)

Penal statutes are strictly construed.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q68. The concept of “plea bargaining” is not applicable to the offence committed against

• (1) A woman
• (2) A child
• (3) Both 1 and 2 ✔
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (3)

s. 265A CrPC — plea bargaining is barred for offences against a woman or a child below 14.

Law now: Same exclusion in s. 289 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q69. Which case is leading case on arrest

• (1) Joginder Kumar vs. State of U.P.
• (2) State of W.B. vs. D.K. Basu ✔
• (3) Both 1 and 2
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (2)

D.K. Basu v. State of W.B. (1997) laid down the arrest guidelines.

Note: Joginder Kumar (1994) is also a leading case on the need for arrest.

General Knowledge

Q70. It refers to an authority derived from official character merely, expressly conferred not upon the rather individual character, but annexed to official position

• (1) Designation
• (2) Ex-Offico ✔
• (3) Appointment
• (4) Ad interim.

Answer: (2)

Ex officio — by virtue of the office.

Arbitration & ADR

Q71. In most EU member countries, which of the following is the most visible form of ADR?

• (1) Mediation
• (2) Arbitration ✔
• (3) Litigation
• (4) Conciliation.

Answer: (2)

Arbitration is the most established ADR form in the EU; mediation remains under-used despite Directive 2008/52/EC.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q72. Which of the following Section deals with search warrant

• (1) 93 ✔
• (2) 94
• (3) 95
• (4) 96

Answer: (1)

s. 93 CrPC — when a search warrant may be issued.

Law now: Now s. 96 BNSS.

Family Law

Q73. Natural guardian of an adopted son under the Hindu Minority & Guardianship Act, 1956 is

• (1) Original father
• (2) original mother(In the absence of)
• (3) Adoptive father ✔
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (3)

s. 7 HMGA — the adoptive father, and after him the adoptive mother.

Intellectual Property

Q74. Which condition is not required to be satisfied by an invention to be patentable matter under Patent Act

• (1) Novelty subject
• (2) Inventive steps
• (3) Distinctiveness ✔
• (4) Usefulness.

Answer: (3)

Novelty, inventive step and industrial application are needed; distinctiveness is a trade mark test.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q75. ‘A’ resides at Shimla, ‘B’ at Kolkata and ‘C’ at Delhi. A, B & C being together at Banaras. B & C make a joint promissory note, payable on demand and delivered to A. A may sue B & C.

• (1) At Banaras, where the cause of action arose
• (2) At Kolkata where B resides.
• (3) At Delhi where C resides.
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

Illustration (b) to s. 20 CPC.

Family Law

Q76. In respect of family relations the law applicable in India is

• (1) Secular law in India
• (2) Statutory law
• (3) Religious law
• (4) Personal law of the parties. ✔

Answer: (4)

Family relations are governed by the personal law of the parties.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q77. Who is responsible for payment to a person employed by him in a factory under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936

• (1) Accounts manager
• (2) HR manager
• (3) Floor manager
• (4) Owner. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3 Payment of Wages Act — the employer is responsible.

Law now: Now subsumed in the Code on Wages, 2019.

Land Acquisition · Law changed

Q78. Fulfilling the constitutional obligation under Article 300 A, the Land Acquisition Act, is the law providing for

• (1) Acquisition of land and taking over possession of land
• (2) Assessment of compensation
• (3) Payment of compensation
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

The Act covered acquisition, assessment and payment of compensation.

Law now: Replaced by the RFCTLARR Act, 2013.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q79. The various words used to denote Mens Rea under the IPC and are defined in the code itself are

• (1) Voluntary, dishonestly, fraudulently & reason to believe ✔
• (2) Corruptly and want only
• (3) Malignantly and maliciously
• (4) Rashly and negligently.

Answer: (1)

ss. 24, 25, 26 and 39 IPC define dishonestly, fraudulently, reason to believe and voluntarily.

Law now: Now s. 2 BNS.

IPC / BNS

Q80. There is either theft or extortion. It is –

• (1) Robbery ✔
• (2) Dacoity
• (3) Criminal breach of trust
• (4) Receiving stolen property.

Answer: (1)

s. 390 IPC (s. 309 BNS) — in all robbery there is either theft or extortion.

Constitutional Law

Q81. When can the Supreme Court refuse to grant remedy under Article 32

• (1) Delay
• (2) Malicious petition
• (3) Infructuous petition
• (4) All of the above. ✔

Answer: (4)

The Court may refuse relief for laches, malice or where the petition has become infructuous.

Professional Ethics

Q82. Vikramaditya vs. Smt. Jamila Khatoon is an important case relating to professional misconduct due to which factor—

• (1) Advocate attending the Court with fire arms
• (2) Not appearing before the Court deliberately and intentionally
• (3) Suppression of material facts with intention to harass poor persons
• (4) Defrauding the client by exploiting the client’s illiteracy. ✔

Answer: (4)

The advocate was held guilty of defrauding an illiterate client.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q83. Motor Vehicles Act, 1939, came into force in?

• (1) 1939
• (2) 1940 ✔
• (3) 1941
• (4) 1942

Answer: (2)

Act 4 of 1939, enacted on 16 February 1939, was brought into force in 1940.

Law now: Replaced by the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

Taxation

Q84. In case of a co-operative society the maximum amount on which income tax is not chargeable is

• (1) 50,000
• (2) 30,000
• (3) 20,000
• (4) Nil. ✔

Answer: (4)

Co-operative societies have no basic exemption limit; tax starts from the first rupee.

Company Law & NI Act

Q85. Minimum number of members required to apply for Incorporation Certificate in a Public Ltd. Company is:

• (1) 7 ✔
• (2) 3
• (3) 2
• (4) 50.

Answer: (1)

s. 3 Companies Act, 2013 — seven persons for a public company.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q86. To close down a factory the occupier has to give how many days notice to the authorities

• (1) 30 days
• (2) 60 days ✔
• (3) 90 days
• (4) 14 days.

Answer: (2)

s. 25FFA ID Act — 60 days’ notice of intended closure.

Law now: Now s. 74 of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

General Knowledge

Q87. Minto – Morely reform is associated with which Act?

• (1) Indian Council Act 1912
• (2) Indian Council Act 1856
• (3) Indian Council Act 1908
• (4) Indian Council Act 1909. ✔

Answer: (4)

The Morley-Minto Reforms were enacted as the Indian Councils Act, 1909.

Professional Ethics

Q88. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that ‘misconduct envisages breach of discipline’

• (1) P.D Gupta vs. Ram Murti
• (2) Noratanmal Chaurasia vs. M.R. Murli ✔
• (3) P.J Ratnam vs. D. Kanikaram
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (2)

Noratanmal Chourasia v. M.R. Murli (2004).

Contract & Property

Q89. A sells a field to B. There is a right of way over the field of which A has direct personal knowledge but which he conceals from B.

• (1) B has the right to rescind the contract ✔
• (2) B cannot rescind the contract
• (3) A has the right to rescind the contract
• (4) A is not legally liable

Answer: (1)

Active concealment is fraud (s. 17(2)), so the contract is voidable at B’s option (s. 19).

Constitutional Law

Q90. In the Government of India Act 1935, which subjects are included in the ‘concurrent list?

• (1) Marriage
• (2) Divorce & Arbitration
• (3) Criminal Law & Procedure
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

List III of the 1935 Act included criminal law and procedure, marriage, divorce and arbitration.

Constitutional Law · Law changed

Q91. What is the Special Constitutional Position of Jammu and Kashmir?

• (1) It is above Indian Constitution
• (2) Indian laws are not applicable
• (3) It has its own Constitution ✔
• (4) It is not of the integral parts of Indian Union

Answer: (3)

Under Art. 370 the State had its own Constitution (1957).

Law now: Art. 370 was made inoperative in August 2019, upheld in In re Article 370 (2023); the J&K Constitution no longer operates.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q92. In a written statement, the defendant can claim:

• (1) Set off
• (2) Counter plain
• (3) Both a & b ✔
• (4) None of the above.

Answer: (3)

O. 8 R. 6 and R. 6A CPC — set-off and counter-claim.

Cyber Law / IT Act · Law changed

Q93. The Chairperson of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is appointed by the

• (1) Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India ✔
• (2) State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court
• (3) Central Government
• (4) Central Government in consultation with Controller of Certifying Authority

Answer: (1)

Under the IT Act, the Chairperson was appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

Law now: The Cyber Appellate Tribunal was merged into TDSAT by the Finance Act, 2017.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q94. Where the complaint alleges a defect in the goods which cannot be determined without proper analysis or test of the goods, the sample of goods forwarded to appropriate laboratory for laboratory test. Such types of case finding report within………… days

• (1) 30 days
• (2) 40 days
• (3) 45 days ✔
• (4) 60 days

Answer: (3)

s. 13(1)(c) CPA 1986 — the laboratory reports within 45 days.

Law now: Same 45 days in s. 38(2)(c) CPA 2019.

IPC / BNS

Q95. This section was enacted to meet the cases of dowry deaths. It is

• (1) Section 366A of IPC
• (2) Section 477A of IPC
• (3) Section 498A of IPC ✔
• (4) Section 489A of IPC.

Answer: (3)

s. 498A (1983) was enacted against cruelty and dowry deaths.

Note: s. 304B (1986) specifically defines dowry death; of the options only 498A applies.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q96. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948

• (1) Who has completed 17 years
• (2) Who is less than 18 years of age
• (3) Who is more than 15 years but less than 18 years of age ✔
• (4) None of these

Answer: (3)

s. 2(b) Factories Act — completed 15 but not 18 years.

Law now: The Factories Act is now subsumed in the OSH Code, 2020.

Arbitration & ADR

Q97. The objective of the EU Directive on mediation is:

• (1) Reducing back logs of cases at the Courts in the member States
• (2) Dividing the cases between all dispute resolution methods
• (3) Economical reasons in times of crisis, thus ensuring that mediators will have a proper income
• (4) Ensuring better access to alternative dispute resolution in cross border commercial conflicts. ✔

Answer: (4)

Directive 2008/52/EC aims at better access to ADR in cross-border commercial disputes.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q98. Complaint means allegation in writing made by a complainant that-

• (1) An unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practice has been adapted by any traders or service provider.
• (2) The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or more defect
• (3) A traders or the service provider as the case may be has charged for the goods or for the services mentioned in the complaint a price in excess of the price
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(1)(c) CPA 1986 covers all three.

CrPC / BNSS

Q99. A warrant of arrest may be extended –

• (1) To that place where the offender has committed the offence
• (2) At any place within India ✔
• (3) To the place specified under the Criminal Procedure Code
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 77 CrPC — a warrant may be executed at any place in India.

Taxation · Key corrected

Q100. An appeal to the High Court against the order of ITAT should be filed within

• (1) 45 days when the order is communicated
• (2) 60 days when the order is communicated
• (3) 90 days when the order is communicated
• (4) 120 days when the order is communicated ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 260A(2)(a) Income-tax Act — 120 days from receipt of the ITAT order.

Note: The published key gives (2).