AIBE 9 (IX) 2016 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 100 Questions Solved

Read this first

• 9 published keys were corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 1 question was withdrawn or given grace marks. Where one option is still right in law, it is shown as the answer.
• 17 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

Arbitration & ADR

Q1. The conciliation proceedings-

• (1) Can be used as evidence in any judicial proceedings.
• (2) Can be used as evidence only in Arbitral proceedings.
• (3) Can be used as evidence only on the discretion of the judge or arbitrator.
• (4) Cannot be used as evidence in any judicial or arbitral proceedings. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 81 A&C Act — views, admissions and proposals made in conciliation cannot be relied on in any arbitral or judicial proceedings.

Company Law & NI Act · Key corrected

Q2. The Serious Fraud Investigation Office

• (1) Takes up cases suo motto
• (2) Takes up cases for investigation on the basis of application made by the people concerned
• (3) Takes up cases for investigations referred to it by Central Government ✔
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 212 Companies Act, 2013 — the SFIO investigates only cases assigned to it by the Central Government; it has no suo motu power.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Constitutional Law

Q3. Directive Principles are-

• (1) justifiable as fundamental rights
• (2) justifiable but not as fundamental rights
• (3) decorative portions of Indian Constitution
• (4) not justifiable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 37 — Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country.

Constitutional Law

Q4. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha

• (1) President ✔
• (2) Prime Minister
• (3) Speaker of Lok Sabha
• (4) Council of Ministers

Answer: (1)

Art. 85(2)(b) — the President may dissolve the House of the People.

Constitutional Law

Q5. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of Bill for such purpose in

• (1) Council of States
• (2) House of People
• (3) either in Council of States or House of People ✔
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (3)

Art. 368(2) — an amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament.

Environmental Law

Q6. Which of the following is a function of Central Pollution Control Board under the provisions of Section 16 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?

• (1) To carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of pollution and prevention, control or abatement of pollution.
• (2) To improve the quality of air
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) neither (1) and (2)

Answer: (3)

s. 16 Air Act — the CPCB’s main function is to improve air quality; it also carries out and sponsors research on air pollution.

Environmental Law

Q7. The destruction of fish by use of explosive or by poisoning the water is prohibited by

• (1) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
• (2) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
• (3) Indian Fisheries Act, 1897 ✔
• (4) The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

Answer: (3)

ss. 4-5 Indian Fisheries Act, 1897 punish killing fish with explosives or poison.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q8. Section 10 of CPC does not apply-

• (1) when the previous suit is pending in the same Court
• (2) when the previous suit is pending in a foreign Court ✔
• (3) when the previous suit is pending in any other Court of India.
• (4) when the previous suit is pending in a Court outside India established by the Central Government

Answer: (2)

Explanation to s. 10 CPC — a suit pending in a foreign court does not bar an Indian court from trying the same matter.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q9. Principle of Res judicata is

• (1) Mandatory ✔
• (2) Directory
• (3) Discretionary
• (4) All the above

Answer: (1)

s. 11 CPC is mandatory; the court has no discretion to re-try a matter already finally decided.

Public International Law

Q10. International law is a weak law because

• (1) It is not enforceable as such, it is not a law but a positive morality
• (2) There is absence of compulsory dispute settlement mechanisms and independent system of sanctions ✔
• (3) It only includes States as subjects
• (4) There is no dependable sources available

Answer: (2)

The usual criticism is the absence of compulsory adjudication and of an independent system of sanctions.

Public International Law · Key corrected

Q11. Which of the following territories have been declared as Common Heritage of Mankind Territories? (A) Moon (B) High seas (C) Deep sea bed (D) Antarctica

• (1) A, B and D
• (2) A and C ✔
• (3) B, C, and D
• (4) B and D

Answer: (2)

The Moon (Moon Agreement 1979, Art. 11) and the deep seabed (UNCLOS Art. 136) are declared the common heritage of mankind; the high seas are res communis and Antarctica is governed by the Antarctic Treaty.

Note: The published key gives (3).

Public International Law

Q12. Which of the following is not the objective of the United Nations

• (1) Maintenance of International peace and security
• (2) Ensuring respect for treaty’ obligations
• (3) Establishment of democratic Governments throughout the world ✔
• (4) Promotion of better standards of life

Answer: (3)

Art. 1 UN Charter lists peace and security, friendly relations, co-operation and respect for obligations; it does not require democratic governments.

IPC / BNS

Q13. The committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013 was headed by-

• (1) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
• (2) Justice Altamas Kabeer
• (3) Justice J.S. Verma ✔
• (4) Justice J.S. Anand

Answer: (3)

The Justice J.S. Verma Committee (2013) led to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013.

Company Law & NI Act

Q14. If an instrument may be construed either as promissory note or bill of exchange, it is

• (1) a valid instrument
• (2) an ambiguous instrument ✔
• (3) a returnable instrument
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 17 NI Act — such an instrument is “ambiguous”; the holder may treat it as either.

Company Law & NI Act

Q15. How is the net worth of a foreign Company calculated for the purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility?

• (1) The networth will be calculated as per Section 198 of Companies Act, 2013
• (2) It shall be calculated as per Section 197 of the Companies Act, 2013
• (3) It shall be calculated as per Section 197 and Section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013
• (4) It shall be calculated as per Section 198 and Sec. 381 of Companies Act, 2013. ✔

Answer: (4)

CSR Rules, 2014 — a foreign company’s figures are worked out under s. 381(1)(a) read with s. 198.

Jurisprudence

Q16. According to one of the theories of punishment evil should be returned by evil. This theory is called the

• (1) Reformative Theory
• (2) Deterrent Theory
• (3) Preventive Theory
• (4) Retributive Theory ✔

Answer: (4)

Retributive theory — punishment is a return of evil for evil.

Company Law & NI Act · Key corrected

Q17. Which of the following actions can be taken by a Registrar under Section 4 of the Companies Act, 2013?

• (1) He can direct the Company to change its name within a period of 6 months after passing an ordinary resolution
• (2) Take action for striking off the name of the Company from the registrar of Companies ✔
• (3) Order winding up of the Company on his own accord
• (4) All of these

Answer: (2)

s. 4(5) Companies Act, 2013 — the Registrar may direct a change of name within three months (not six), strike off the company, or petition (not order) winding up; only (2) is accurate.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Constitutional Law · Key corrected

Q18. Which of the following are included in the concept of “State” under Article 12?

• (1) Railway Board and Electricity Board
• (2) Judiciary
• (3) University
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Railway and Electricity Boards (Rajasthan SEB v. Mohan Lal, 1967) and State universities are “State”; the judiciary is “State” when acting in its administrative or rule-making capacity.

Note: The published key gives (2).

Constitutional Law

Q19. The word ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 means

• (1) that due process of law must be followed
• (2) A procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority ✔
• (3) The same thing as due process of law
• (4) A law which is reasonable, just and fair.

Answer: (2)

A.K. Gopalan (1950) read it as a procedure enacted by a competent legislature.

Note: Since Maneka Gandhi (1978) the procedure must also be just, fair and reasonable.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q20. Objection as to non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties under Order 1, Rule 13 of CPC

• (1) Can be taken at any stage of the proceedings
• (2) should be taken at the earliest possible opportunity or shall be invalid ✔
• (3) can be taken in appeal or revision for the first time
• (4) either (1) or (3)

Answer: (2)

O. 1 R. 13 CPC — objections not taken at the earliest opportunity are deemed waived.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q21. Objection as to the place of suing

• (1) can only be taken before the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity ✔
• (2) can also be taken before the appellate Court for the first time
• (3) can also be taken before the Court of revision for the first time
• (4) all of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 21 CPC — the objection must be taken in the court of first instance at the earliest opportunity, and an appellate court entertains it only if there has been a failure of justice.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q22. On the retirement, removal or death of a next friend, under Order XXXII, Rule 10 of CPC, the suit is liable to be

• (1) stayed ✔
• (2) dismissed
• (3) rejected
• (4) either 1, 2 OR 3

Answer: (1)

O. 32 R. 10 CPC — further proceedings are stayed until a new next friend is appointed.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q23. In India which of the following authorities has the power to block websites?

• (1) CERT-in
• (2) MCIIPC
• (3) C-DAC
• (4) Ministry of IT ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 69A IT Act — the Central Government (MeitY) issues blocking orders.

IPC / BNS

Q24. The right to private defence is

• (1) available under all circumstances
• (2) available when there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public authorities
• (3) available when there is no time to have recourse of public authorities ✔
• (4) All the above

Answer: (3)

s. 99 IPC (s. 37 BNS) — no right of private defence where there is time to seek the protection of public authorities.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q25. Which of the following can be considered retrenchment under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

• (1) Termination due to ill-health
• (2) Abandonment of job by an employee
• (3) Termination on account of reaching the age of superannuation
• (4) None of these ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(oo) ID Act excludes termination for continued ill-health and superannuation; abandonment is not termination by the employer.

Law now: Now s. 2(zh) of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, in force from 21 November 2025.

Labour Law

Q26. Which of the following statements holds true regarding imprisonment under Section 14(3) of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986?

• (1) It may extend to one year.
• (2) It may extend to two years.
• (3) It may extend to six months.
• (4) It may extend to one month ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 14(3) Child Labour Act — contravention of other provisions is punishable with simple imprisonment up to one month, or fine up to Rs. 10,000, or both.

Family Law

Q27. Onus to prove reasonable excuse for withdrawal from the Society of the other is on

• (1) Petitioner
• (2) Respondent ✔
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) Either (1) or (2)

Answer: (2)

Explanation to s. 9 HMA — the burden of proving reasonable excuse is on the spouse who has withdrawn from the society of the other.

Administrative Law

Q28. Which of the following Statements hold true for adjudicatory bodies

• (1) Doctrine of Stare Decisis applies to them
• (2) Doctrine of Res judicata does not apply to them
• (3) Inherent lack of jurisdiction in a Tribunal cannot be cured or created by the act of the parties ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Consent or waiver cannot confer jurisdiction on a tribunal that inherently lacks it.

Professional Ethics

Q29. The Supreme Court held in V.C. Rangadurai vs. D. Gopalan that an advocate who has been disbarred or suspended from practice must prove after expiration of a reasonable length of time that,

• (1) He appreciates the insignificance of his dereliction
• (2) He has lived a consistent life of poverty and integrity
• (3) He possesses the good character necessary to guarantee uprightness and honour in his professional dealings ✔
• (4) The burden is on the applicant to establish that he entitled to resume the privilege of practicing law without restrictions.

Answer: (3)

V.C. Rangadurai (1979) — the applicant must show he has the good character needed for uprightness and honour in professional dealings; the burden is on him.

Note: He must also show he appreciates the significance of his misconduct and has led a life of probity.

Arbitration & ADR

Q30. The present Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on-

• (1) Constitution of India
• (2) Supreme Court of India guidelines
• (3) European Commercial Arbitration procedure.
• (4) Uncitral ✔

Answer: (4)

The 1996 Act is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law (1985) and Conciliation Rules (1980).

Company Law & NI Act

Q31. Who among the following is authorized to issue regarding shelf prospectus

• (1) SEBI ✔
• (2) Central Government
• (3) Company Law Board regulations
• (4) National Company Law Tribunal

Answer: (1)

s. 31 Companies Act, 2013 — shelf prospectus may be filed by the classes of companies SEBI specifies by regulations.

Environmental Law

Q32. Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle as given under the Indian Forest Act, 1927

• (1) Rams
• (2) Kids
• (3) Kitten ✔
• (4) None of these

Answer: (3)

s. 2(2) Indian Forest Act — “cattle” includes rams, ewes, sheep, lambs, goats and kids, but not kittens.

Arbitration & ADR

Q33. The provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by the principles underlying the 1940 Act. This observation was laid down in –

• (1) M.M.T.C. Ltd vs. Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd.
• (2) Sunderam Finance Ltd. vs. N.E.P.C. Ltd. ✔
• (3) Olympus Superstructures Pvt. Ltd. vs. Meera Vijay
• (4) Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. vs. Nissari Pvt. Ltd.

Answer: (2)

Sundaram Finance v. NEPC (1999) — the 1996 Act must be construed independently of the 1940 Act.

Company Law & NI Act

Q34. Which of the following services cannot be provided to the Company by an auditor appointed, under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013

• (1) Internal Audit
• (2) Actuarial services
• (3) Managerial Services
• (4) All of these ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 144 Companies Act, 2013 bars the auditor from internal audit, actuarial and management services, among others.

Environmental Law · Law changed

Q35. Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, any person who teases an animal in a zoo maybe punished

• (1) with fine with may extend to 5000
• (2) with imprisonment which may extend upto 1 year
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) Neither (1) or (2) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 51(1B) WPA — teasing zoo animals (s. 38J) was punishable with up to six months or Rs. 2,000 fine for a first offence, so neither option is right.

Law now: The 2022 Amendment raised the fines; the term of imprisonment is unchanged.

Constitutional Law

Q36. The entry on forests and protection of Wild animals and birds was moved from……. to the….. by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India.

• (1) Centre list to State list
• (2) Centre list to Concurrent list
• (3) State list to Concurrent list ✔
• (4) State list to Union list

Answer: (3)

The 42nd Amendment (1976) moved forests and wild life to the Concurrent List (Entries 17A and 17B).

Public International Law

Q37. Droit des Gens (Law of Nations) 1758 was written by

• (1) Cornelius van Bynkershoek
• (2) Emerich de Vattel ✔
• (3) Richard Zouch
• (4) Jean Bodin

Answer: (2)

Emerich de Vattel, Le Droit des Gens (1758).

Contract & Property · Key corrected

Q38. What is true of perpetual injunction

• (1) It is a judicial process
• (2) preventive in nature
• (3) the thing prevented is a wrongful act
• (4) all of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

A perpetual injunction is a judicial process, preventive relief (Part III, SRA), and restrains a wrongful act — all three are true.

Note: The published key gives (2).

Labour Law · Law changed

Q39. The provisions of do not apply to trade unions registered under the Provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926.

• (1) The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
• (2) The Companies Act, 1956
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

Answer: (3)

s. 14 Trade Unions Act — the Societies Registration, Co-operative Societies and Companies Acts do not apply to a registered trade union.

Law now: Now in the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

Jurisprudence

Q40. According to Salmond every legal right

• (1) Cannot be vested in a person
• (2) Is availed against a person upon whom lies the correlative duty ✔
• (3) Cannot oblige the person bound to an act or omission in favour of the person entitled
• (4) Cannot have a title

Answer: (2)

Salmond — every right is available against a person on whom the correlative duty lies.

Jurisprudence

Q41. The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by

• (1) Public opinion
• (2) Abrogated decision ✔
• (3) Res judicata
• (4) Lis pendens

Answer: (2)

A decision abrogated by statute or overruled loses its binding force.

Constitutional Law

Q42. Which of the following is true in respect of a Government contract which does not confirm to provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution?

• (1) They are not enforceable in Court against the parties ✔
• (2) They can be rectified by the Government
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

Answer: (1)

A contract not complying with Art. 299 is void and cannot be ratified (Mulamchand v. State of M.P., 1968).

Professional Ethics

Q43. State Bar Council under the provisions of Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 has the authority to

• (1) Reprimand the advocate
• (2) Suspend the advocate from practice for such period of time as it may deem fit
• (3) Remove the name of the advocate from the State roll of advocates
• (4) All of these ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 35(3) Advocates Act — dismiss, reprimand, suspend or remove the name from the roll.

Professional Ethics

Q44. Which of the following is untrue. regarding qualification for a person to be admitted on the State rolls maintained by State Bar Councils

• (1) The minimum age of requirement is 21 years.
• (2) He must be an Indian Citizen ✔
• (3) He must not have been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
• (4) They must not have been convicted of an offence under the provisions of the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1958

Answer: (2)

s. 24(1)(a) — citizenship is not absolute; a foreign national may be enrolled on reciprocity.

Limitation Act

Q45. Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of

• (1) Minority
• (2) Insanity
• (3) Idiocy
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 9 Limitation Act — once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability stops it.

IPC / BNS

Q46. To establish section 34 –

• (1) Common Intention must be proved but not overt act is required to be proved.
• (2) Common intention and overt act both are required to be proved ✔
• (3) Common intention need not be proved but only overt act is required to be proved.
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 34 IPC (s. 3(5) BNS) — the prosecution must prove a common intention and the accused’s participation in the act.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q47. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the appropriate Government can by order in writing

• (1) Refer the dispute to a Board for promoting a settlement of the dispute
• (2) Refer any matter appearing to be relevant to the dispute to a Court for inquiry
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) neither (1) nor (2)

Answer: (3)

s. 10(1)(a)-(b) ID Act — reference to a Board for settlement, or of a relevant matter to a Court of Inquiry.

Law now: Now in the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

Labour Law

Q48. Which of the following Statement is true for loss of confidence by management in the workman?

• (1) Even when dismissal or discharge is held to be wrongful, the Court may not yet order reinstatement if the employer is able to establish that the workman held a position of trust and there was loss of confidence.
• (2) Loss of confidence may also be a ground for discharge simpliciter of the workman
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) neither (1) nor (2)

Answer: (3)

Loss of confidence may justify refusing reinstatement and may also ground discharge simpliciter.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q49. Under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the period of limitation complaint before the Commission is for filing National

• (1) 1 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
• (2) 2 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen ✔
• (3) 3 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
• (4) 4 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen

Answer: (2)

s. 24A CPA 1986 — two years from the cause of action.

Law now: Same two-year rule in s. 69 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q50. Grievous hurt under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 means’

• (1) Grievous hurt as defined in IPC ✔
• (2) Grievous hurt as defined in medical laws
• (3) Grievous hurt as detected by medical practitioner
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (1)

The MV Act adopts the IPC meaning of “grievous hurt”.

Law now: Now s. 116 BNS.

Evidence / BSA

Q51. A retracted confession-

• (1) can be solely made the basis of conviction
• (2) cannot be solely made the basis of conviction
• (3) cannot be solely made the basis of the same is conviction corroborated unless ✔
• (4) both a and c are correct

Answer: (3)

A retracted confession is not made the sole basis of conviction without corroboration, as a rule of prudence.

Evidence / BSA · Key corrected

Q52. A confession to be inadmissible under Section 25 of the Act

• (1) must relate to the same crime for which offender is charged
• (2) may relate to the same crime for which offender is charged ✔
• (3) must relate to another crime
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 25 Evidence Act (s. 23 BSA) bars every confession to a police officer, whether it concerns the crime charged or any other.

Note: The published key gives (3).

CrPC / BNSS

Q53. An unjustified and unexplained long delay on the part of the Investigating Officer in recording the Statement of a material witness would render the evidence of such witness

• (1) Unreliable ✔
• (2) Inadmissible
• (3) Inadmissible and unreliable
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

Ganesh Bhavan Patel v. State of Maharashtra (1978) — unexplained delay in recording a witness’s statement makes the evidence unreliable.

CrPC / BNSS

Q54. Recording of pre-summoning evidence may be dispensed with under Section 200 of Cr.PC.

• (1) If the complaint is supported by the affidavit of the complainant
• (2) If the complaint is made in writing by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties ✔
• (3) both I and 2 are correct
• (4) only 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect

Answer: (2)

Proviso to s. 200 CrPC — examination is dispensed with where a public servant complains in writing in discharge of official duty.

Law now: Same in s. 223 BNSS.

Contract & Property

Q55. Contract without consideration made in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection is

• (1) void
• (2) reasonable
• (3) valid ✔
• (4) unenforceable

Answer: (3)

s. 25(1) Contract Act — a written, registered promise made out of natural love and affection between near relatives is valid.

Contract & Property

Q56. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882

• (1) the salary of a public officer can be transferred
• (2) the salary of a public officer cannot be transferred ✔
• (3) public office can be transferred
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 6(g) TPA — stipends and salaries of public officers cannot be transferred.

Contract & Property

Q57. Where a debt is transferred for securing an existing or future debt, the debt so transferred, if received by the transferor or recovered by the transferee, is applicable first in payment of the costs of such recovery. This provision relates to:

• (1) mortgaged debt ✔
• (2) gift
• (3) actionable claim
• (4) lease

Answer: (1)

s. 134 TPA — mortgaged debt.

Contract & Property

Q58. A suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be brought by

• (1) trespasser
• (2) a tenant holding over ✔
• (3) servant
• (4) manager

Answer: (2)

s. 6 SRA — a tenant holding over has juridical possession; a servant or manager holds only for the master.

Contract & Property

Q59. Injunction cannot be granted in a suit

• (1) in which the specific performance cannot enforced ✔
• (2) for breach of negative contract to enforce specific contract
• (3) for declaration where the plaintiff is in possession
• (4) neither 1, nor 2, nor 3

Answer: (1)

s. 41(e) SRA — no injunction to prevent breach of a contract that cannot be specifically enforced.

Public International Law

Q60. State practice for the formation of customary rule includes A. State actions B. State claims

• (1) only A
• (2) only B
• (3) both A and B ✔
• (4) neither A nor B

Answer: (3)

State practice includes both physical acts and verbal claims of States.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q61. The Controller of Certifying Authorities in India must maintain a database of the disclosure records of A. Certifying Authority B. Cross Certifying Authority C. Foreign Certifying Authority

• (1) A and B
• (2) B and C
• (3) C and A
• (4) A, B and C ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 18 IT Act — the Controller maintains a public database of the disclosure records of every certifying authority, including those recognised by it.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q62. Under Section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, the certifying authority can suspend the digital signature certificate if A. The subscriber is found guilty of malpractice/ B. The subscriber is involved in cyber terrorism/C. The subscriber requests for the same D. In public interest

• (1) A and B
• (2) B and C
• (3) C and D ✔
• (4) D and A

Answer: (3)

s. 37 IT Act — suspension on the subscriber’s request or in the public interest.

Cyber Law / IT Act · Law changed

Q63. In the cases before Cyber Appellate Tribunal, the appellant

• (1) Cannot appear in person without a legal practitioner
• (2) Cannot authorize a legal practitioner to appear on his behalf
• (3) Cannot authorize his officer to appear on his behalf
• (4) Cannot authorize his relative who is neither his officer nor a legal practitioner to appear on his behalf. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 60 IT Act — the appellant may appear in person or through legal practitioners or his officers, not a relative.

Law now: The Cyber Appellate Tribunal was merged into TDSAT by the Finance Act, 2017.

IPC / BNS · Withdrawn / Grace · Law changed

Q64. In the light of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013, which of the following Statement is lare correct?

• (1) The word “rape” in Section 375 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been replaced with sexual assault
• (2) Rape is now a gender-neutral offence
• (3) The amendment has fixed the age for consensual sex as 16 years
• (4) All the above

Answer: Withdrawn / grace marks

Grace mark: the 2013 Act kept the word “rape”, left it gender-specific and raised the age of consent to 18, so no option is correct.

Law now: BNS s. 63 retains the same position.

IPC / BNS

Q65. The offence of stalking upon second or subsequent conviction is

• (1) Non Cognizable and Bailable
• (2) Cognizable and Bailable
• (3) Cognizable and Non-bailable ✔
• (4) Non Cognizable and Non-bailable

Answer: (3)

s. 354D(2) IPC (s. 78 BNS) — a second conviction is cognizable and non-bailable.

IPC / BNS

Q66. In kidnapping, the consent of minor is

• (1) wholly immaterial ✔
• (2) partly immaterial
• (3) wholly material
• (4) partly material

Answer: (1)

In kidnapping (s. 361 IPC; s. 137 BNS) the minor’s consent is wholly immaterial.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q67. Under the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, any person who has attained the age of may be a member of a registered Trade Union subject to any rules of the Trade Union to the contrary.

• (1) 14 years
• (2) 15 years ✔
• (3) 18 years
• (4) 21 years

Answer: (2)

s. 21 Trade Unions Act — a person aged fifteen may be a member.

Law now: Now governed by the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q68. Spurious goods under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 imply

• (1) Such goods and services which are of poor quality.
• (2) Such goods and services which are claimed to be genuine but they are actually not so ✔
• (3) Such goods and services which might be stolen in nature
• (4) Such goods and services which are not usable in nature

Answer: (2)

s. 2(1)(oo) CPA 1986 — goods falsely claimed to be genuine.

Law now: Now s. 2(43) CPA 2019.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q69. Who is liable to pay compensation in case of death or permanent disablement?

• (1) Owner of the vehicle ✔
• (2) State Government
• (3) Driver
• (4) Insurance Company

Answer: (1)

s. 140 MV Act — the owner is liable on a no-fault basis.

Law now: After the 2019 Amendment, s. 164 makes the owner or insurer pay Rs. 5 lakh for death and Rs. 2.5 lakh for grievous hurt.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q70. Indian Evidence Act applies to

• (1) Proceedings before Tribunals
• (2) Proceedings before the arbitrator
• (3) Judicial proceedings in Court ✔
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 1 — the Act applies to judicial proceedings in courts, not to affidavits or arbitrators.

Law now: Same in s. 1 BSA.

Evidence / BSA

Q71. Fact in issue means-

• (1) Fact, existence or non existence of which is admitted by the parties
• (2) Fact, existence or non existence of which is disputed by the parties ✔
• (3) Fact, existence or non existence of which is not disputed by the parties
• (4) All the above

Answer: (2)

s. 3 — facts in issue are those whose existence is disputed and from which a right or liability follows.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q72. In a bailable offence bail is granted as a matter of right.

• (1) By the police officer
• (2) By the Court
• (3) Both by the police officer and the Court ✔
• (4) either (1) or (2)

Answer: (3)

s. 436 CrPC — in a bailable offence both the police officer and the court must release on bail.

Law now: Now s. 478 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q73. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance

• (1) within 6 months of attachment
• (2) within 2 years of attachment ✔
• (3) within 3 years of attachment
• (4) within 1 year of attachment

Answer: (2)

s. 85(3) CrPC — within two years from the date of attachment.

Law now: Now s. 87 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q74. The question whether a Statement was recorded in the course investigation is a

• (1) question of law
• (2) question of fact ✔
• (3) mixed question of law and fact
• (4) question of law or of fact depends on facts and circumstances

Answer: (2)

Whether a statement was made in the course of investigation is a question of fact.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q75. Where the police submit a final report under Section 173 CrPC to a Magistrate for dropping the proceedings, the Magistrate:

• (1) may accept the same
• (2) may reject the same
• (3) may reject the same and order further investigation
• (4) any of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

On a closure report the Magistrate may accept it, reject it and take cognizance, or order further investigation.

Law now: Now s. 193 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q76. The orders under Section 125 of CrPC are

• (1) summary in nature but finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties
• (2) summary in nature and do not finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties which are to be finally determined by a civil Court ✔
• (3) Substantive in nature and finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties.
• (4) Substantive in nature and are not Subject to determination of a right of the parties by a civil Court.

Answer: (2)

Maintenance orders under s. 125 CrPC are summary and subject to a final decision of the civil court.

Law now: Now s. 144 BNSS.

Contract & Property

Q77. A contingent contract to do anything if a specified uncertain event happens within a fixed time, under Section 35 of the Contract Act:

• (1) remains valid even if the event does not happen within that fixed time
• (2) becomes void at the expiration of the time fixed
• (3) becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the expiry of time fixed.
• (4) both (2) and (3) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 35 Contract Act — void if the event does not happen within the time or becomes impossible before it.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q78. Which among the following is authorized under the Information Technology Act, 2000 to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of Sections 14 and 15 of the Act?

• (1) Central Government ✔
• (2) State Government
• (3) Certifying authority
• (4) Issuing authority

Answer: (1)

s. 16 IT Act — the Central Government prescribes security procedures for ss. 14 and 15.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q79. The essential ingredient of the tort of negligence are
(1) When one owes a duty of care towards the other.
(2) When one commits a breach of that duty and/
(3) The other person suffers damage as a consequence thereof Choose correct response for below

• (1) None of them are essential ingredients
• (2) Only the first is an essential ingredient
• (3) All of them are essential ingredients ✔
• (4) Even if the first is absent the tort of negligence is committed

Answer: (3)

Duty of care, breach and consequent damage are all essential.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q80. Vicarious liability includes

• (1) Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent
• (2) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
• (3) Liability of the partners for each other tort
• (4) all of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Principal-agent, master-servant and partners are all instances of vicarious liability.

Evidence / BSA

Q81. Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence is applicable when the maker of a Statement

• (1) is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence
• (2) is a person who can be found but his attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses
• (3) is a person who cannot be found
• (4) all of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 32 Evidence Act (s. 26 BSA) covers all these situations.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q82. Secondary evidence of a document means

• (1) Copies of the document
• (2) oral account of the contents of the documents
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 63 — copies and oral accounts are both secondary evidence.

Law now: Now s. 58 BSA.

Evidence / BSA · Key corrected

Q83. A Will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness

• (1) when it is registered
• (2) when it is unregistered
• (3) when it is admitted
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 68 Evidence Act (s. 67 BSA) — a will must always be proved by at least one attesting witness; the proviso exempting registered documents excludes wills.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Evidence / BSA

Q84. Any person in Section 106 of Evidence Act refers to

• (1) a party to the suit ✔
• (2) a stranger to the suit
• (3) a person who is not a party to the suit but interested in the outcome of the suit
• (4) all of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 106 Evidence Act (s. 109 BSA) — the burden rests on the party who has special knowledge of the fact.

CrPC / BNSS

Q85. In a cognizable case under IPC, police have the

• (1) Authority to arrest a person without warrant
• (2) Authority to investigate the offence without permission of the Magistrate
• (3) Both (1) or (2) ✔
• (4) Either (1) or (2)

Answer: (3)

ss. 2(c) and 156 CrPC — arrest without warrant and investigation without the Magistrate’s order.

CrPC / BNSS · Key corrected

Q86. During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by

• (1) any Police Officer
• (2) by the investigating officer ✔
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) either (1) or (2)

Answer: (2)

s. 165 CrPC (s. 185 BNSS) — only the officer in charge or the officer making the investigation (or one deputed in writing) may search without warrant.

Note: The published key gives (3).

CrPC / BNSS

Q87. Committal proceedings under Sec. 209 of CrPC are in the nature of

• (1) aid in investigation
• (2) inquiry ✔
• (3) trial
• (4) either inquiry or trial

Answer: (2)

Committal under s. 209 CrPC is part of the inquiry stage, not the trial.

Contract & Property

Q88. Which is correct?

• (1) proposal + acceptance = promise
• (2) promise + consideration= agreement
• (3) agreement + enforceability=contract
• (4) all of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(b), (e) and (h) Contract Act.

Contract & Property

Q89. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer

• (1) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
• (2) when it is put in course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the acceptor ✔
• (3) when the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
• (4) all of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 4 Contract Act.

Contract & Property

Q90. In cases of general offer, for a valid contract

• (1) the acceptor need not have the knowledge of the offer
• (2) the acceptor must have the knowledge of the offer before acceptance by performance ✔
• (3) the acceptor may acquire the knowledge of the offer after the performance of the condition for acceptance
• (4) knowledge does not matter so long as the condition is performed with or without knowledge

Answer: (2)

Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) — acceptance requires knowledge of the offer.

Contract & Property

Q91. Under the provision of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit

• (1) upon his birth ✔
• (2) 7 days after his birth
• (3) 12 days after his birth
• (4) no such provision is made

Answer: (1)

s. 20 TPA — the unborn person acquires a vested interest upon birth.

Contract & Property

Q92. Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be voidable

• (1) at the option of creditor so defeated or delayed ✔
• (2) at the option of debtor
• (3) at the option of Court
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 53 TPA — voidable at the option of the creditor defeated or delayed.

Contract & Property

Q93. Where co-judgment debtors are in the position of joint promisors, each is-

• (1) not jointly and severally liable to the decree holder
• (2) jointly and severally liable to the decree holder ✔
• (3) jointly liable to the decree holder only
• (4) severally liable to the decree holder only

Answer: (2)

s. 43 Contract Act — joint promisors are jointly and severally liable.

Company Law & NI Act

Q94. At sight under Section 21 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 means

• (1) on presentation
• (2) on demand ✔
• (3) on coming into vision
• (4) none of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 21 NI Act — “at sight” and “on presentment” mean on demand.

Limitation Act · Key corrected

Q95. Section 5 of the Limitation Act applies to

• (1) Suits
• (2) Execution
• (3) Election petitions
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 5 Limitation Act applies only to appeals and applications (not Order XXI applications); it does not apply to suits or election petitions.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Company Law & NI Act · Law changed

Q96. Which of the following Companies will have to constitute Corporate Social responsibility Committee under the Companies Act, 2013

• (1) A Company having a net profit of 2.5 cores in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 800 crore
• (2) A Company having a net profit of 3 cores, in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 600 crore
• (3) A Company having a net profit of 5 croes or more, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 1000 crore or more ✔
• (4) A Company having a net profit of 5 croes or more, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 5000 crore or more

Answer: (3)

s. 135(1) Companies Act, 2013 — net worth Rs. 500 crore, or turnover Rs. 1,000 crore, or net profit Rs. 5 crore.

Note: Option (4) also crosses the thresholds; (3) states them exactly.

Law now: Since 2021, a company whose CSR obligation is Rs. 50 lakh or less need not form a committee (s. 135(9)).

Family Law

Q97. A disqualified person/heir

• (1) Transmits an interest to his or her own heir
• (2) Transmits no interest to his or her own heir ✔
• (3) May or may not transmit an interest to his or her own heir as per the discretion of the Court
• (4) May only transmit an interest to his or her own heir with the consent of the other heirs.

Answer: (2)

s. 27 HSA — the disqualified heir is treated as having died before the intestate, so nothing passes through him.

Administrative Law

Q98. In cases in which a specific act confers a discretionary power on an authority.

• (1) The Court can direct the manner in which the power is exercised
• (2) The Court can direct that the power be exercised in accordance with law ✔
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

Answer: (2)

The court can direct that the power be exercised according to law, but cannot dictate how it is exercised.

Professional Ethics

Q99. The Bar Council of India Rule which stipulated that persons aged 45 years and above could not be enrolled as advocates was struck down by the Supreme Court in

• (1) In E. S. Reddi vs. Bar Council of India
• (2) Indian Council of Legal Aid and Advise vs. Bar Council of India ✔
• (3) P. Shanmugam vs. Bar Council of India
• (4) Legal Committee vs. Bar Council of India.

Answer: (2)

Indian Council of Legal Aid & Advice v. BCI (1995).

Arbitration & ADR

Q100. Which is an incorrect Statement?

• (1) An Arbitral award is a contract. ✔
• (2) An Arbitral award must be in writing and signed
• (3) An Arbitral award included an interim award.
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

An award is a decision, not a contract; it must be in writing and signed (s. 31) and includes an interim award (s. 2(1) (c)).