AIBE 12 (XII) 2018 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 100 Questions Solved

Read this first

• 8 published keys were corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 3 questions were withdrawn or given grace marks. Where one option is still right in law, it is shown as the answer.
• 18 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

Constitutional Law

Q1. Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court

• (1) Any public-spirited person
• (2) NGO or Association with public spirit
• (3) Group of public-spirited persons who have no personal interest
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Any public-spirited person, group or association without personal interest may move a PIL.

Constitutional Law

Q2. Doctrine of ‘Pleasure’ applies to

• (1) Legislative
• (2) Civil Servants ✔
• (3) Judges
• (4) Cabinet Ministers

Answer: (2)

Art. 310 — civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor.

Company Law & NI Act

Q3. Articles of a company can be altered by

• (1) The directors of the company
• (2) The official of the company
• (3) Shareholders by passing an ordinary resolution
• (4) Shareholders by passing a special resolution ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 14 Companies Act, 2013 — articles are altered by special resolution.

Constitutional Law

Q4. Article 361 provides

• (1) Authority to Union government to dismiss the state governments
• (2) Authority to the state governments to pass legislation
• (3) Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in courts ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Art. 361 — immunities of the President and Governors.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q5. Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with

• (1) Section 298 of IPC ✔
• (2) Section 296 IPC
• (3) Section 297 IPC
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 298 IPC — words uttered with deliberate intent to wound religious feelings.

Law now: Now s. 302 BNS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q6. Under Section 320 (1), Cr.P.C. for criminal intimidation, with section of IPC is applicable

• (1) 503
• (2) 504
• (3) 505
• (4) 506 ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 506 IPC (criminal intimidation) is compoundable under s. 320(1) CrPC.

Law now: Now s. 351 BNS and s. 359 BNSS.

Arbitration & ADR

Q7. Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism

• (1) Bar Council of India
• (2) Election Commission
• (3) Comptroller and Auditor General
• (4) Lok Adalat ✔

Answer: (4)

The Lok Adalat is India’s innovative ADR forum.

Family Law

Q8. Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor

• (1) Father
• (2) Brother ✔
• (3) The executor appointed by father
• (4) Grand father

Answer: (2)

Under Muslim law the legal guardians of a minor’s property are the father, his executor, the paternal grandfather and his executor — not a brother.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q9. Indian Evidence Act was enacted in

• (1) 1972
• (2) 1872 ✔
• (3) 1955
• (4) 1986

Answer: (2)

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

Law now: Replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 from 1 July 2024.

Professional Ethics

Q10. Which is the correct state statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer

• (1) Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott’
• (2) An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
• (3) An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Ex-Capt. Harish Uppal v. Union of India (2003) and the BCI Rules support all three.

Administrative Law

Q11. Droite Administration is a system of administration

• (1) French system ✔
• (2) British system
• (3) American system
• (4) Irish System

Answer: (1)

Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q12. Which Act is covering the Cyber crimes

• (1) Indian Telecommunication Act
• (2) Indian Penal Code
• (3) Indian Evidence Act
• (4) Information Technology Act ✔

Answer: (4)

The IT Act, 2000 is the principal law on cyber crimes.

Constitutional Law

Q13. The First constitutional amendment was enacted in

• (1) 1950
• (2) 1951 ✔
• (3) 1967
• (4) 1975

Answer: (2)

The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q14. A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts

• (1) Section 107, IPC ✔
• (2) Section 120 (B) of IPC
• (3) Section 114 of IPC
• (4) Section 144 of IPC

Answer: (1)

s. 107 IPC — abetment by instigation.

Law now: Now s. 45 BNS.

Constitutional Law

Q15. A land mark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency, that is

• (1) Keshavanand Bharti V/s. State of Kerela
• (2) Golaknath V.s State of Punjab
• (3) MC Mehta V/s. Union of India
• (4) ADM Jabalpur V/s. Shivkant Shukla ✔

Answer: (4)

ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976).

Note: Overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017).

Professional Ethics

Q16. Section 24A of Advocates Act 1961 provides the

• (1) Appointment of Attorney General
• (2) Regular attendance at law College
• (3) Admitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll ✔
• (4) Election to state Bar Council

Answer: (3)

s. 24A Advocates Act — disqualifications for admission to a State roll.

Company Law & NI Act

Q17. Under the Companies Act every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least

• (1) 100 shares
• (2) 20 shares
• (3) 10 shares
• (4) 1 share ✔

Answer: (4)

Each subscriber to the memorandum must take at least one share.

Taxation · Key corrected

Q18. GST came into force from

• (1) 1st January, 2017
• (2) 1st April, 2017
• (3) 1st July, 2017 ✔
• (4) 1st August, 2017

Answer: (3)

GST came into force on 1 July 2017.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Evidence / BSA · Key corrected · Withdrawn / Grace

Q19. Examination in Chief is conducted by the

• (1) Chief Examiner of the court
• (2) A lawyer appointed by the accused
• (3) A lawyer appointed by the government
• (4) Presiding judge in the court

Answer: Withdrawn / grace marks

No single correct option: s. 137 — examination-in-chief is by the party who calls the witness, which may be the prosecutor (3) or the defence (2).

Note: The published key gives (2).

Environmental Law

Q20. The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of

• (1) The Stockholm Conference
• (2) The Nairobi Conference
• (3) The Vienna Conference
• (4) The Rio De Janeiro Conference ✔

Answer: (4)

The UNFCCC was adopted at the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.

Taxation

Q21. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under

• (1) Wealth Tax
• (2) GST
• (3) Income Tax Act, 1961 ✔
• (4) Finance Act, 1992

Answer: (3)

s. 139A Income-tax Act, 1961.

Family Law

Q22. A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is……….

• (1) Irregular ✔
• (2) Void
• (3) Voidable
• (4) None of these

Answer: (1)

Under Sunni law a marriage during iddat is irregular (fasid), not void.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q23. Section 10 of the CPC provides for

• (1) Stay of the suit ✔
• (2) Summoning witness
• (3) Examination of witness
• (4) Sentencing the judgement

Answer: (1)

s. 10 CPC — stay of suit.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q24. Who is prevented from being testified under Section 118 of Indian Evidence Act

• (1) A lunatic who cannot understand the question put to him
• (2) Extreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
• (3) A tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 118 — anyone prevented by tender years, extreme old age or disease from understanding questions.

Law now: Now s. 124 BSA.

Constitutional Law

Q25. Supreme Court decided in SR Bommai V/s. Union of India

• (1) Relating to the President Rule in state ✔
• (2) Relating to the illegal detention
• (3) Relating to the right to clean environment
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) — limits on President’s Rule under Art. 356.

Environmental Law · Key corrected · Law changed

Q26. The Costal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in

• (1) 1986
• (2) 1988
• (3) 1991 ✔
• (4) 1997

Answer: (3)

The first Coastal Regulation Zone Notification was issued on 19 February 1991.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Law now: Replaced by the CRZ Notifications of 2011 and 2019.

IPC / BNS

Q27. Who is lawful guardian

• (1) A person who in law represents the Minor
• (2) A person who has been appointed by the court
• (3) A person who has been authorized to represent an unmarried daughter
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Explanation to s. 361 IPC — a lawful guardian includes anyone lawfully entrusted with the care or custody of the minor.

Labour Law

Q28. Who is a protected workman

• (1) Workman given police protection during labour strike
• (2) Workman protected by insurance coverage
• (3) Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment ✔
• (4) Workman protected from being arrested by a court order

Answer: (3)

Explanation to s. 33(3) ID Act — an office-bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment.

Intellectual Property

Q29. A trade mark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of

• (1) A word
• (2) A device
• (3) A label
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

A trade mark may be a word, device or label.

Arbitration & ADR

Q30. The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of alternate dispute resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of

• (1) Legal Service Corporation Act, 1974
• (2) Legal Aid and Advice Act, 1949
• (3) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 ✔
• (4) None Of the above

Answer: (3)

The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gave Lok Adalats statutory status.

Family Law

Q31. Shah Bano case was related to

• (1) Dowry demand
• (2) Harassment at work place
• (3) Maintenance of divorced Muslim women ✔
• (4) Triple divorce of Muslim Women

Answer: (3)

Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985) — maintenance of a divorced Muslim wife under s. 125 CrPC.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q32. Who is garnishee

• (1) A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim ✔
• (2) A borrower arrested for defaulting
• (3) A person who cannot repay a bank loan
• (4) A person who mortgaged his farm land

Answer: (1)

A garnishee is a third party who owes money to the judgment-debtor and is directed to pay it into court (O. 21 R. 46A).

Land Acquisition

Q33. Under section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to the court

• (1) The Tahsildar
• (2) The Sub Collector
• (3) The Deputy Collector
• (4) The Collector ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 18 LA Act, 1894 — the Collector refers the matter to the court.

Limitation Act

Q34. For Specific Performance of a contract suit is to be instituted in

• (1) 3 years ✔
• (2) 3 months
• (3) 6 months
• (4) No specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract

Answer: (1)

Art. 54 Limitation Act — three years.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q35. The definition of “complainant” is given in the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 under

• (1) Section 2(1)(b) ✔
• (2) Section 20
• (3) Section 21
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 2(1)(b) CPA 1986 defines complainant.

Law now: Now s. 2(5) CPA 2019.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q36. Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader-suits in the code of civil procedure?

• (1) Order 12, Rule
• (2) Order 17, Rule 10
• (3) Order 33, Rule 18
• (4) Order 35, Rule 1 ✔

Answer: (4)

O. 35 R. 1 CPC — plaint in interpleader suits.

Family Law

Q37. The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act: In which case the order was passed:

• (1) Handa v/s. Handa (AIR 1955)
• (2) Dr. Mary V/s. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991) ✔
• (3) Peter V/s. Anglina (AIR 1992)
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Dr. Mary v. Dr. Vincent (1991).

Professional Ethics

Q38. Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act, 1961 by

• (1) Section 25
• (2) Section 33
• (3) Section 35 ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 35 Advocates Act.

Constitutional Law

Q39. Which one is a case of public interest

• (1) Vishaka V/s State of Rajasthan
• (2) Minerva Mills V/s. Union of India AIR 1980
• (3) Municipal Council, Ratlam Vs. Vardichand AIR 1980
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Vishaka and Ratlam Municipality are public-interest cases.

Note: Minerva Mills was a company’s own writ petition rather than a PIL, but the paper treats all three as public-interest cases.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q40. Under Section 239 CrPC, the Magistrate can

• (1) Frame charges against the accused person
• (2) Discharge the accused if charges are groundless ✔
• (3) Open trial for evidence
• (4) Convict the accused if pleaded guilty

Answer: (2)

s. 239 CrPC — discharge where the charge is groundless.

Law now: Now s. 262 BNSS.

Constitutional Law

Q41. Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances

• (1) When the state legislature is not in session ✔
• (2) During the course of legislature session
• (3) On the recommendation of the state cabinet
• (4) With the permission of the union government

Answer: (1)

Art. 213 — when the Legislature is not in session.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q42. A person arrested should not be detained more than

• (1) 48 hours
• (2) 24 hours ✔
• (3) 14 days
• (4) 90 days

Answer: (2)

Art. 22(2) and s. 57 CrPC — 24 hours.

Law now: Now s. 58 BNSS.

Family Law

Q43. Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance

• (1) Son who is a minor
• (2) Daughter who is not married
• (3) Grand parents
• (4) An illegitimate son ✔

Answer: (4)

Under Hanafi law a father is not bound to maintain an illegitimate child.

Note: Under s. 125 CrPC (s. 144 BNSS) an illegitimate child can still claim maintenance.

Evidence / BSA

Q44. In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on

• (1) The Petitioner ✔
• (2) The respondents
• (3) The state government
• (4) The Court

Answer: (1)

ss. 101-102 — the burden lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given.

CrPC / BNSS

Q45. In which of the following of Section 59 Cr.P.C. the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place

• (1) On his own bond
• (2) On bail
• (3) Under special order of the Magistrate
• (4) All of them ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 59 CrPC — discharge only on his own bond, on bail, or by a Magistrate’s special order.

Labour Law

Q46. Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to he Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 is

• (1) Dispute between employers and employers
• (2) Dispute between employers and workman
• (3) Dispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non- employment
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(k) ID Act covers all three kinds of dispute.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q47. English case Ryland V/s. Fletcher laid down a very important rule

• (1) Absolute Liability ✔
• (2) Vicarious Liability
• (3) Indirect Liability
• (4) Financial Liability

Answer: (1)

Rylands v. Fletcher (1868) laid down no-fault liability.

Note: Strictly, it laid down strict liability; absolute liability came from M.C. Mehta (1987). Of the options, (1) is the intended answer.

Contract & Property · Key corrected

Q48. Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale:

• (1) The parties must be competent to contract
• (2) There must be mental consent
• (3) There must be a transfer of property
• (4) There must be an agreement to sell ✔

Answer: (4)

A sale needs competent parties, consent and a transfer of ownership; a prior agreement to sell is not essential.

Note: The published key gives (3).

CrPC / BNSS

Q49. “Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law”. In which case supreme court made this remark

• (1) A. K. Gopalan V/s State of Madras
• (2) M.C Mehta V/s Union of India
• (3) D. K Basu V/s State of Bengal ✔
• (4) vishaka V/s State of Rajasthan

Answer: (3)

D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997).

Contract & Property

Q50. Doctrine of “LIS PENDENS” is given under which section of the transfer of property Act

• (1) 41
• (2) 52 ✔
• (3) 53
• (4) 53-A

Answer: (2)

s. 52 TPA — lis pendens.

Public International Law

Q51. Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?

• (1) It is a true law ✔
• (2) It has vertical structure
• (3) It has well established institutes of governance
• (4) It has formal law enforcing agencies

Answer: (1)

International law is true law, though horizontal and decentralised in structure.

Family Law · Key corrected

Q52. Deferred Mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse

• (1) This statement is true under Sunni law ✔
• (2) This statement is not true
• (3) Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce
• (4) Deferred is mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse

Answer: (1)

Deferred mahr becomes payable on dissolution of marriage by death or divorce.

Note: The published key gives (2). The rule is the same under Shia law.

Evidence / BSA

Q53. Dying declaration must be made by

• (1) The dying person in hospital
• (2) The doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
• (3) The deceased before death ✔
• (4) Nearest relative of the deceased

Answer: (3)

A dying declaration is a statement by a person, since deceased, about the cause of death (s. 32(1)).

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q54. Judgement should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open court

• (1) By delivering the whole of the judgement
• (2) By reading out the whole of the judgement
• (3) By reading out the operative part of the judgement
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 353 CrPC — the whole judgment, read out whole, or the operative part with its substance explained.

Law now: Now s. 392 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q55. Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution

• (1) Section 242 Cr. P.C ✔
• (2) Section 264 Cr. P.C
• (3) Section 237 Cr. P.C
• (4) Section 235 Cr. P.C

Answer: (1)

s. 242 CrPC — evidence for prosecution in warrant cases.

Law now: Now s. 265 BNSS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q56. Abetting the Commission of suicide is given under

• (1) Section 9 of IPC
• (2) Section 8 of IPC
• (3) Section 7 of IPC
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Abetment of suicide is s. 306 IPC.

Law now: Now s. 108 BNS.

Contract & Property

Q57. Recovery of specific immovable property is defined

• (1) Section of 5 of Specific Relief Act ✔
• (2) Section 120 (B) of IPC
• (3) Under section 10 of Sale of goods Act
• (4) None of the Above

Answer: (1)

s. 5 SRA — recovery of specific immovable property.

Taxation · Law changed

Q58. Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act deals with

• (1) Revision petition in division bench of High Court
• (2) Appeal in Supreme Court ✔
• (3) Return of Wealth Tax
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 29 Wealth-tax Act — appeal to the Supreme Court.

Law now: Wealth tax was abolished from AY 2016-17.

Land Acquisition

Q59. The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act 1894, give immediate…………….. of any correction made in the award to all the persons included

• (1) Approval
• (2) Stay
• (3) Announcement
• (4) Notice ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 13A LA Act — immediate notice of any correction to all persons interested.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q60. “A” is at work with a hatchel: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained in

• (1) Section 80 of IPC ✔
• (2) Section 84 of IPC
• (3) Section 81 of IPC
• (4) Section 85 of IPC

Answer: (1)

Illustration to s. 80 IPC — accident in doing a lawful act.

Law now: Now s. 18 BNS.

Constitutional Law

Q61. Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v/s. Union of India, (1995) 1 SC 14, in this PIL which issue was exposed before the court

• (1) The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men ✔
• (2) Abolition of child labour
• (3) Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
• (4) Poor salary of maid servants

Answer: (1)

Delhi Domestic Working Women’s Forum (1995) — domestic servants raped by army men; guidelines on rape victims’ compensation.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q62. Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature

• (1) Chapter III ✔
• (2) Chapter IV
• (3) Chapter IX
• (4) Chapter IX and X

Answer: (1)

Chapter III (s. 5) IT Act — legal recognition of electronic signatures.

CrPC / BNSS

Q63. The FIR gives information of

• (1) Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a police officer
• (2) Report submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal case
• (3) The commission of a cognizable crime ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 154 CrPC — information of a cognizable offence.

Constitutional Law

Q64. Control over sub ordinate courts shall be vested in the

• (1) High Court ✔
• (2) Supreme Court
• (3) Chief Minister
• (4) Governor

Answer: (1)

Art. 235 — control over subordinate courts vests in the High Court.

Code of Civil Procedure · Key corrected

Q65. Section 34 of the CPC provides

• (1) The payment of fine imposed by the court
• (2) Payment of compensation to the other party
• (3) Payment of interest ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 34 CPC — interest.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Evidence / BSA · Key corrected · Withdrawn / Grace

Q66. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called

• (1) Coercive question
• (2) Confusing question
• (3) Misleading question
• (4) Rhetoric Question

Answer: Withdrawn / grace marks

No correct option: s. 141 calls it a leading question.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Law now: Now s. 146 BSA.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q67. According to Clauses (i),
(ii) and
(iii) of Section 145 of the code of civil Procedure a surety:

• (1) May render himself personally liable
• (2) He may only give a change upon his property
• (3) He may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
• (4) All of these ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 145 CPC — a surety may bind himself personally, charge his property, or both.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q68. Section 49 of Factories Act 1947 explains about

• (1) Canteen
• (2) Creche
• (3) Welfare officer ✔
• (4) Rest room

Answer: (3)

s. 49 Factories Act, 1948 — welfare officers.

Law now: Now subsumed in the OSH Code, 2020.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q69. The word ” case” used in Section 115 of the code of civil Procedure is of wide import and

• (1) It means any state of facts juridically considered
• (2) It includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in a civil court
• (3) Both (1) and (2) ✔
• (4) None of these

Answer: (3)

Major S.S. Khanna v. Brig. F.J. Dillon (1964) — “case” covers any state of facts juridically considered and includes part of a proceeding.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q70. “A” finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs to “B” and appropriates to his own use. “A” is guilty of

• (1) Criminal breach of trust
• (2) Cheating
• (3) Criminal misappropriation ✔
• (4) Theft white

Answer: (3)

Illustration to s. 403 IPC — criminal misappropriation.

Law now: Now s. 314 BNS.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q71. The word “is not possessed of sufficient means” in Order 33 Rule 1 refer:

• (1) To dower debt due by the petitioner’s husband
• (2) To property over which petitioner has actual control ✔
• (3) To sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
• (4) None of these

Answer: (2)

“Means” covers property actually within the applicant’s control, not mere claims.

Arbitration & ADR

Q72. Section 22-B of Legal Services Authority Act empower the central and state Authorities to

• (1) Abolish Lok Adalat
• (2) Works of Lok Adalat
• (3) Powers of Lok Adalat or Permenent Lok Adalat
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 22B establishes Permanent Lok Adalats; none of the options describe it.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q73. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgements, decrees or orders etc. can be corrected

• (1) Under Section 151 of CPC
• (2) Under Section 152 of CPC ✔
• (3) Under Section 153 of CPC
• (4) Under Section 153 A of CPC

Answer: (2)

s. 152 CPC.

Evidence / BSA

Q74. Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is

• (1) Admissible ✔
• (2) Not admissible
• (3) Challengeable
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

A confession to a Magistrate (s. 164 CrPC) is admissible.

Constitutional Law

Q75. Supreme court has decided in Keshavanand Bharti V/s. State of Kerala, that

• (1) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution
• (2) Parliament cannot amend any provision of the constitution
• (3) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Kesavananda Bharati (1973) — basic structure doctrine.

CrPC / BNSS

Q76. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused without warrant?

• (1) Section 40
• (2) Section 41 ✔
• (3) Section 42
• (4) Section 37

Answer: (2)

s. 41 CrPC.

Law now: Now s. 35 BNSS.

Constitutional Law

Q77. Financial Relations between the State and Centre are defined in constitution

• (1) Between Articles 245-255
• (2) Between Articles 256-263
• (3) Between Articles 264 to 293 ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Part XII, Chapter I (Arts. 264-293) — finance.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q78. Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad under Section 124 (A) of IPC for

• (1) Calling Hartal
• (2) Breaching public peace and tranquillity
• (3) Sedition and disaffection to the government ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Gandhi was tried for sedition under s. 124A in 1922.

Law now: s. 124A is in abeyance (S.G. Vombatkere, 2022); BNS has no sedition offence, s. 152 covers acts endangering sovereignty.

CrPC / BNSS

Q79. Police can seek a bond for good behaviour under Sections 109 and 110 of CrPC from

• (1) Habitual offenders ✔
• (2) White collar criminals
• (3) Jail inmates
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 110 CrPC — security for good behaviour from habitual offenders.

Family Law

Q80. Dayabhaga school Presumes that “a family because it is joint possesses joint property”

• (1) This statement is correct
• (2) This presumption is under Mitakshara school
• (3) This statement is incorrect ✔
• (4) None of these

Answer: (3)

There is no presumption that a joint family possesses joint property (Srinivas Krishnarao Kango, 1954).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q81. An Appeal Against Order Passed under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in

• (1) The High Court
• (2) The Supreme Court ✔
• (3) The Central Government
• (4) Not Appealable

Answer: (2)

s. 27A CPA 1986 — appeal to the Supreme Court.

Professional Ethics

Q82. Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct

• (1) Ethics Committee
• (2) Professional Development Committee
• (3) Disciplinary Committee ✔
• (4) High Court

Answer: (3)

Disciplinary Committees of the Bar Councils.

Arbitration & ADR

Q83. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes

• (1) Process of Conciliation. ✔
• (2) Process of Arbitration
• (3) Enforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions.
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Part III — conciliation.

Constitutional Law

Q84. Separation of judiciary form Executive is guaranteed in constitution under Article

• (1) 19
• (2) 21
• (3) 48-A
• (4) 50 ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 50 — separation of judiciary from executive.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q85. In-camera trials is conducted in the cases charged under section

• (1) 302 IPC
• (2) 307 IPC
• (3) 376 IPC ✔
• (4) 498-A IPC

Answer: (3)

s. 327(2) CrPC — rape trials are held in camera.

Law now: Now s. 366 BNSS.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q86. In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to

• (1) Violate legal right of the victim
• (2) Cause damage to the victim ✔
• (3) Obtain benefit for the combiners
• (4) Perfect the interest of combiners

Answer: (2)

The predominant purpose must be to injure the plaintiff (Crofter Harris Tweed, 1942).

Contract & Property

Q87. Cancellation of instrument is mentioned in

• (1) Section 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
• (2) Section of 26 of Specific Relief Act
• (3) Section 31-33 of Specific Relief Act ✔
• (4) Section 36-42 of Specific Relief Act

Answer: (3)

ss. 31-33 SRA.

Labour Law

Q88. Unfair labour practice by the employers

• (1) Victimization
• (2) False implication in criminal case
• (3) Untrue allegations of absence without leave
• (4) All the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Fifth Schedule ID Act lists all three.

Limitation Act

Q89. A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is

• (1) 3 years form the date of sentencing the Judgement
• (2) 3 years from the date of release from imprisonment
• (3) 3 years from the date of commencing the imprisonment
• (4) 1 year when the imprisonment ends ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 73 Limitation Act — one year from when the imprisonment ends.

Administrative Law

Q90. Rule of Law is defined by

• (1) Jeremy Bentham
• (2) Sir John Salmond
• (3) A.Y. Diecy ✔
• (4) Prof. Aristotle

Answer: (3)

A.V. Dicey, Law of the Constitution (1885).

CrPC / BNSS

Q91. What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR

• (1) Within 24 hours
• (2) Within 48 hours
• (3) Within 14 days of the offence
• (4) No time limit is specified ✔

Answer: (4)

No time limit, though unexplained delay affects credibility.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q92. Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?

• (1) They are a special law within Section 4 of the code of civil procedure
• (2) They must take precedence over Section 114 or Order 47
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) None of these ✔

Answer: (4)

Rules framed under Art. 145 regulate the Supreme Court’s own practice; the paper’s key treats neither statement as correct.

Contract & Property

Q93. Which section of Sale of Goods Act 1930 deal with anticipatory breach of contract

• (1) Section 50
• (2) Section 65
• (3) Section 60 ✔
• (4) Section 70

Answer: (3)

s. 60 Sale of Goods Act — repudiation before the due date.

Intellectual Property

Q94. Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright- act by invoking the provisions

• (1) Section 13-16
• (2) Section 17-27
• (3) Section 63-70 ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

ss. 63-70 Copyright Act — offences.

Contract & Property

Q95. Which section of Indian Registration Act, 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties

• (1) Section 11
• (2) Section 13
• (3) Section 17 ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 17(1)(a) Registration Act — gifts of immovable property must be registered.

Note: The published key gives (4).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q96. State government’s power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicle Act 1988 under section

• (1) 67 of MV Act 1988 ✔
• (2) 68 of MV Act 1988
• (3) 69 of MV Act 1988
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 67 MV Act, 1988.

Jurisprudence · Key corrected · Withdrawn / Grace

Q97. Which is not the Private Right

• (1) Rights of property
• (2) Right of freedom.
• (3) Rights to Education
• (4) All the above

Answer: Withdrawn / grace marks

No option fits: property, freedom and education are all rights vested in individuals.

Note: The published key gives (4).

CrPC / BNSS

Q98. Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61 CrPC?

• (1) It is milder form of process
• (2) It is for appearance
• (3) It is for producing documents or thing
• (4) All of them ✔

Answer: (4)

A summons is the milder process, for appearance or production.

Evidence / BSA

Q99. The Kashmira Singh Vs. State of Punjab is a leading case on

• (1) Dying Declaration
• (2) Admission
• (3) Confession
• (4) None of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

The leading confession case is Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P. (1952); with “State of Punjab” named, the paper’s key is (4).

Company Law & NI Act

Q100. What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act

• (1) Recovery of stolen property
• (2) Recovery of seized vehicles from RTO
• (3) Recovery of the cheque amount in case cheque issued by the payer is bounced ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

s. 138 NI Act — dishonour of cheque.