AIBE 15 (XV) 2021 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 100 Questions Solved

Read this first

• 1 published key was corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 21 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q1. Section 66-A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in the case of

• (1) Justice K. S. Putta swamy Vs Union of India
• (2) MP Sharma Vs Satish Chandra
• (3) Shreya Singhal Vs Union Of India ✔
• (4) Gagan Harsh Sharma Vs The State of Maharashtra

Answer: (3)

Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015).

Labour Law

Q2. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of

• (1) The Workmen Vs Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors
• (2) John Joseph Khokar Vs Bhadange B. S. & ors
• (3) A. Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa ✔
• (4) Dinesh Sharma and Ors. Vs State of Bihar

Answer: (3)

Miss A. Sundarambal v. Govt. of Goa (1988).

Labour Law · Law changed

Q3. According to Factories Act

• (1) “child” means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age; ✔
• (2) “child” means a person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age
• (3) “child” means a person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age
• (4) “child” means a person who has not completed his sixteenth year of age

Answer: (1)

s. 2(c) Factories Act — a person who has not completed fifteen years.

Law now: Now subsumed in the OSH Code, 2020.

Arbitration & ADR

Q4. This UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act. – held in the case of

• (1) Union of India Vs East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd., ✔
• (2) Union of India Vs M.C. Mehta
• (3) Tata Press Ltd Vs Union of India
• (4) Union of India Vs Indian Change Chrome Ltd

Answer: (1)

Union of India v. East Coast Boat Builders & Engineers (1999).

Arbitration & ADR

Q5. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in-

• (1) a document signed by the parties;
• (2) an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement;
• (3) an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 7(4) A&C Act covers all three; the 2015 Amendment added electronic communications.

Arbitration & ADR

Q6. Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is mentioned under- ——- of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act

• (1) Section 7
• (2) Section 4 ✔
• (3) Section 20
• (4) Section 22

Answer: (2)

s. 4 — deemed waiver of the right to object.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q7. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title. – Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?

• (1) Section 92
• (2) Section 124
• (3) Section 115 ✔
• (4) Section 101

Answer: (3)

Illustration to s. 115 — estoppel.

Law now: Now s. 121 BSA.

Arbitration & ADR

Q8. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals

• (1) The Arbitration Act, 1940,
• (2) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
• (3) the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 85 repealed the 1937, 1940 and 1961 Acts.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q9. Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure
Code deals with the concept of

• (1) Unlawful Assembly
• (2) Arrest without warrant
• (3) search and seizures
• (4) Plea bargaining ✔

Answer: (4)

Chapter XXIA (ss. 265A-265L) — plea bargaining.

Law now: Now ss. 289-300 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q10. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under

• (1) Section 109 of Cr.P.C.
• (2) Section 110 of Cr.P.C ✔
• (3) Section 111 of Cr.P.C.
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 110 CrPC — habitual offenders.

Contract & Property

Q11. X,Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently X,Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay?

• (1) A can, under Section 43 para 1 ✔
• (2) A can under Section 49 para 1
• (3) A cannot and will have to wait till X,Y become traceable
• (4) Z can be compelled only for one third

Answer: (1)

s. 43 para 1 Contract Act — the promisee may compel any one joint promisor to perform the whole.

Contract & Property

Q12. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as

• (1) Agency
• (2) Bailment ✔
• (3) Guarantee
• (4) Contingency

Answer: (2)

s. 148 Contract Act — bailment.

Contract & Property

Q13. Section 14A inserted by THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to

• (1) Power of the Courts to engage experts ✔
• (2) Establishment of Special Court
• (3) Expeditious disposal of case
• (4) Specific performance with regard to contracts

Answer: (1)

s. 14A SRA (2018) — power of the court to engage experts.

Constitutional Law

Q14. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under………… of the Constitution

• (1) Article 323B
• (2) Article 323A ✔
• (3) Article 233
• (4) Article 323

Answer: (2)

Art. 323A — Parliament may set up administrative tribunals for public services.

Professional Ethics

Q15. The Bar Council of India lays down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates under

• (1) Section 3 of the Advocates Act, 1961
• (2) Section 7(1)(b) of the Advocates Act, 1961 ✔
• (3) Section 17 of the Advocates Act, 1961
• (4) Section 18 of the Advocates Act, 1961

Answer: (2)

s. 7(1)(b) Advocates Act.

Professional Ethics

Q16. According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the bar Council of India has power to make rules

• (1) qualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for such membership
• (2) the class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
• (3) the standards of legal education to be observed by universities in India and the inspection of universities for that purpose.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 49 — the BCI may make rules on all these matters.

Family Law

Q17. Requisites of a valid adoption: no adoption shall be valid unless-
(i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption;
(ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so;
(iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and
(iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter. – mentioned under

• (1) Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act ✔
• (2) Section 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
• (3) Section 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
• (4) Section 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

Answer: (1)

s. 6 HAMA — requisites of a valid adoption.

Family Law

Q18. According to the Muslim women (protection of right son marriage) act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be

• (1) Void
• (2) Cognizable
• (3) compoundable
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

ss. 3 and 7 of the 2019 Act — void and illegal; cognizable and compoundable at the wife’s instance.

Family Law

Q19. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005 provides for women:

• (1) coparcenary rights at par with men;
• (2) inheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her brothers;
• (3) inheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased husband
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

The 2005 Amendment substituted s. 6 and deleted s. 4(2), opening agricultural land to women heirs.

Family Law

Q20. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for

• (1) Custody of the Children
• (2) Permanent alimony and maintenance ✔
• (3) Maintenance Pendente lite
• (4) Division of matrimonial property

Answer: (2)

s. 25 HMA — permanent alimony and maintenance.

Family Law

Q21. A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under

• (1) Section 18(2)(f) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
• (2) Section 18(2)(d) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
• (3) Section 18(2)(a) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act ✔
• (4) Section 18(2)(g) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

Answer: (3)

s. 18(2)(a) HAMA — desertion: abandoning the wife without her consent and wilfully neglecting her.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q22. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt under

• (1) Section 33 of CPC
• (2) Section 35A of CPC ✔
• (3) Section 30 of CPC
• (4) Section 35 of CPC

Answer: (2)

s. 35A CPC — compensatory costs for false or vexatious claims.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q23. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant

• (1) Order 5 Rule 19A
• (2) Order 5 Rule 19
• (3) Order 5 Rule 20 ✔
• (4) Order 5 Rule 21

Answer: (3)

O. 5 R. 20 CPC — substituted service.

Evidence / BSA

Q24. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act;

• (1) The facts that A asked C to lend him money,
• (2) D said to C in A’s presence and hearing “I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees,”
• (3) A went away without making any answer
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Illustration (g) to s. 8 — all three facts are relevant.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q25. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under

• (1) Section 25 of the Evidence Act
• (2) Section 26 of the Evidence Act
• (3) Section 27 of the Evidence Act ✔
• (4) Section 29 of the Evidence Act

Answer: (3)

s. 27 — discovery of a fact.

Law now: Now proviso to s. 23(2) BSA.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q26. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. this is under…….. of the Evidence Act

• (1) Section 42
• (2) Section 45 ✔
• (3) Section 50
• (4) Section 55

Answer: (2)

s. 45 — expert opinion.

Law now: Now s. 39 BSA.

Environmental Law

Q27. According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, ‘environmental pollutant’ means

• (1) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment
• (2) only gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
• (3) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment ✔
• (4) any solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment

Answer: (3)

s. 2(b) Environment (Protection) Act.

Environmental Law

Q28. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with reference to

• (1) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
• (2) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
• (3) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
• (4) both A & B ✔

Answer: (4)

Schedule I of the NGT Act does not include the Wild Life Act or the Forest Rights Act.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q29. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication – is known as

• (1) Pharming
• (2) Smishing
• (3) Phishing ✔
• (4) Didling

Answer: (3)

Phishing.

CrPC / BNSS

Q30. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of

• (1) 7 years. ✔
• (2) 10 years
• (3) 11 years
• (4) 14 years

Answer: (1)

s. 265A CrPC — offences punishable up to seven years.

CrPC / BNSS

Q31. “From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190

• (1) Cr PC.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence…. In other words, the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.P.C.” – This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of (1) Nalini Vs State of Tamilnadu
• (2) Raj Singh Vs State (1998) ✔
• (3) Shamsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
• (4) State of Himachal Pradesh Vs Tara Dutta

Answer: (2)

State of Punjab v. Raj Singh (1998).

Contract & Property

Q32. Indemnity contract is defined under

• (1) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act ✔
• (2) Section 67 of the Indian Contract Act
• (3) Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act
• (4) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act

Answer: (1)

s. 124 Contract Act defines indemnity.

Note: The published key gives (2).

Contract & Property

Q33. Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to

• (1) Coercion
• (2) Fraud ✔
• (3) Mistake of fact
• (4) Mistake of law

Answer: (2)

Derry v. Peek and Peek v. Gurney (1873) — fraud and misrepresentation in a prospectus.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q34. Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?

• (1) Section 162
• (2) Section 164 ✔
• (3) Section 163A
• (4) Section 165

Answer: (2)

s. 164 CrPC.

Law now: Now s. 183 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q35. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section…….. of Cr.P.C.

• (1) 83 ✔
• (2) 82
• (3) 85
• (4) 86

Answer: (1)

s. 83 CrPC.

Law now: Now s. 85 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q36. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section……. of Cr.P.C

• (1) 201
• (2) 204
• (3) 205 ✔
• (4) 200

Answer: (3)

s. 205 CrPC.

Law now: Now s. 228 BNSS.

Constitutional Law

Q37. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of Transformative Constitutionalism’ in the case of

• (1) Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018) ✔
• (2) Suresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation (2010)
• (3) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
• (4) Aruna Roy Vs Union of India, (2002)

Answer: (1)

Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018).

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q38. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by

• (1) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
• (2) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
• (3) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 4 IPC covers all three.

Law now: Now s. 1(5) BNS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q39. Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C deals

• (1) Forfeiture of property in certain cases. ✔
• (2) Notice of forfeiture of property
• (3) Management of properties seized or forfeited
• (4) Identifying unlawfully acquired property

Answer: (1)

s. 105H CrPC — forfeiture of property in certain cases.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q40. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation is dealt under

• (1) Section 178 of Cr. P.C.
• (2) Section 469 of Cr. P.C.
• (3) Section 478 of Cr. P.C.
• (4) Section 468 of Cr. P.C. ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 468 CrPC — bar to taking cognizance after the period of limitation.

Note: The source prints “Section 168” for option (4); the provision is s. 468.

Law now: Now s. 514 BNSS.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q41. “decree-holder” means

• (1) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made ✔
• (2) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order incapable of execution has been made
• (3) any Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has. been made
• (4) any corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made

Answer: (1)

s. 2(3) CPC.

Intellectual Property

Q42. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?

• (1) a method of agriculture horticulture
• (2) a presentation of information
• (3) topography of integrated circuits
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3(h), (m) and (p) Patents Act.

Intellectual Property

Q43. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre- existing

• (1) GATT
• (2) BIRPI ✔
• (3) TPRM
• (4) PCT

Answer: (2)

WIPO (1967) succeeded BIRPI.

Constitutional Law

Q44. Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ

• (1) for setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of communication including Internet have been shut down in J&K ✔
• (2) for setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was sought to be acquired in J&K
• (3) for setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K was constituted as a UT
• (4) for setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.

Answer: (1)

Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020) — communication shutdown in J&K.

Constitutional Law

Q45. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Article 19(1)(a), read with Article 19(2), in the case of

• (1) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
• (2) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
• (3) Govinda v. State of M.P.
• (4) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India ✔

Answer: (4)

Shreya Singhal (2015) — s. 66A violated Art. 19(1) (a) and was not saved by Art. 19(2).

Constitutional Law

Q46. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be….

• (1) Two
• (2) Three
• (3) Five ✔
• (4) Nine

Answer: (3)

Art. 145(3) — at least five judges.

Constitutional Law

Q47. The utility of Public Interest Litigation

• (1) Liberalised locus standi
• (2) The proceedings are non-Adversarial
• (3) Procedural requirements are liberalized
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

All three are features of PIL.

Constitutional Law

Q48. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the state of Bihar in repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public has ‘sufficient interest’ to maintain a petition under Article 32- This relates to the case of

• (1) Parmanand Katara Vs Union of India AIR 1989, SC 2039
• (2) D.C.Wadhwa Vs State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579 ✔
• (3) Neeraja Choudhari Vs State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 1984SC1099
• (4) Chameli Singh Vs State of U.P. AIR 1996,SC1051

Answer: (2)

D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987).

Constitutional Law

Q49. Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate class of persons, in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons.” – Justice Bhagwati in the case of

• (1) Peoples Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India
• (2) Ashok Kumar Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
• (3) S. P. Gupta Vs Union of India ✔
• (4) Janata Dal Vs H. S. Chowdhary

Answer: (3)

S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), per Bhagwati J.

Taxation

Q50. The definition of ‘money’ under GST law does not include

• (1) Letter of Credit
• (2) Currency held for numismatic value ✔
• (3) Pay order
• (4) Traveler cheque

Answer: (2)

s. 2(75) CGST Act — “money” excludes currency held for numismatic value.

Taxation

Q51. Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by

• (1) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
• (2) Respective Governors of the State
• (3) The President ✔
• (4) A collective body of Union and States

Answer: (3)

Art. 279A(1) — the President constitutes the GST Council.

Contract & Property

Q52. The definition of Contract is defined under

• (1) Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act.
• (2) Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act. ✔
• (3) Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act.
• (4) Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act.

Answer: (2)

s. 2(h) Contract Act.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q53. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under

• (1) Section 326 B of the Indian Penal Code ✔
• (2) Section 120 B of the Indian Penal Code
• (3) Section 509 of the Indian Penal Code
• (4) Section 295B of the Indian Penal Code

Answer: (1)

s. 326B IPC.

Law now: Now s. 124(2) BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q54. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is

• (1) An Offence of murder
• (2) An offence of Culpable homicide
• (3) Not an offence ✔
• (4) An Offence of causing grievous hurt

Answer: (3)

Illustration to s. 80 IPC — accident.

Law now: Now s. 18 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q55. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z’s handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search-A has committed an Offence under

• (1) Section 256 of IPC
• (2) Section 192 of IPC ✔
• (3) Section 195 A of IPC
• (4) Section 201(a)of IPC

Answer: (2)

Illustration to s. 192 IPC — fabricating false evidence.

Law now: Now s. 228 BNS.

Constitutional Law

Q56. India, that is Bharat, shall be a

• (1) Federation of States
• (2) quasi federal
• (3) Union of states ✔
• (4) Unitary state of a special type

Answer: (3)

Art. 1 — a Union of States.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q57. In M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case) the court held that

• (1) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability. ✔
• (2) In escape of a dangerous animal the owner is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
• (3) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
• (4) A company or a corporation is not a state and hence not liable for leak of toxic gas affecting the health of the people

Answer: (1)

M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987) — absolute liability without the Rylands exceptions.

Contract & Property

Q58. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as

• (1) A Contract of Uberrimae fide
• (2) Implied Agency
• (3) Quantum meruit ✔
• (4) De nova contract

Answer: (3)

s. 70 Contract Act — compensation for a non- gratuitous act, the basis of quantum meruit claims.

Contract & Property

Q59. Agreement is

• (1) a promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other ✔
• (2) enforceable by law
• (3) enforceable contract
• (4) Un enforceable by law

Answer: (1)

s. 2(e) Contract Act.

Land Acquisition

Q60. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression “land” includes

• (1) benefits to arise out of land
• (2) things attached to the earth
• (3) things permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 3(a) LA Act, 1894.

Land Acquisition

Q61. Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference as to compensation exists is provided under

• (1) Section 32 of Land Acquisition Act
• (2) Section 30 of Land Acquisition Act
• (3) Section 35 of Land Acquisition Act ✔
• (4) Section 31 of Land Acquisition Act

Answer: (3)

s. 35 LA Act, 1894.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q62. Suits by indigent persons is dealt under

• (1) Order 44 of C.P.C
• (2) Order 33 of C.P.C ✔
• (3) Order 55 of C.P.C
• (4) Order 22 of C.P.C

Answer: (2)

O. 33 CPC.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q63. Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under

• (1) Section 6 of the Evidence Act ✔
• (2) Section 17 of the Evidence Act
• (3) Section 18 of the Evidence Act
• (4) Section 20 of the Evidence Act

Answer: (1)

s. 6 — res gestae.

Law now: Now s. 4 BSA.

Professional Ethics

Q64. Among other things, the Function of Bar council of India includes laying down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. – Under which section of the Advocates Act

• (1) Section 7 ✔
• (2) Section 8
• (3) Section 9
• (4) Section 6

Answer: (1)

s. 7(1)(b) Advocates Act.

Professional Ethics

Q65. According to Justice ‘Abbot Parry’ what are the “Seven Lamps of Advocacy”.

• (1) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) professionalism (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
• (2) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship. ✔
• (3) (i) influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
• (4) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) seriousness (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.

Answer: (2)

Honesty, courage, industry, wit, eloquence, judgment and fellowship.

Company Law & NI Act

Q66. Minimum number of Directors in a Public company

• (1) 3 ✔
• (2) 10
• (3) 12
• (4) 5

Answer: (1)

s. 149 Companies Act, 2013 — three directors.

Company Law & NI Act

Q67. An associate company, in relation to another company, means

• (1) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
• (2) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company ✔
• (3) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and does not include a joint venture company
• (4) a company in which that other company has full shares, and is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company

Answer: (2)

s. 2(6) Companies Act, 2013.

Constitutional Law

Q68. The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of

• (1) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs Union of India (2011)
• (2) Common Cause Vs Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC ✔
• (3) Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab (1996)
• (4) D Chenna Jagadeeswar Vs State of A.P. (1988)

Answer: (2)

Common Cause v. Union of India (2018).

Note: The guidelines were simplified by the Supreme Court in January 2023.

Constitutional Law

Q69. Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about

• (1) Doctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with reference to civil servants
• (2) Doctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil servants
• (3) Doctrine of natural justice with reference to civil servants
• (4) Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants is ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 310 — doctrine of pleasure.

Constitutional Law

Q70. The right to know the antecedents of candidates in an election flows from

• (1) Article 19(1)(a) ✔
• (2) Article 20
• (3) Article 13
• (4) Article 14

Answer: (1)

Union of India v. ADR (2002) — Art. 19(1)(a).

Constitutional Law

Q71. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression ‘liberty’ is followed by the words

• (1) of status and opportunity
• (2) of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship ✔
• (3) Assuring the dignity of the individual
• (4) Justice, social economic and political

Answer: (2)

Preamble — liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.

Taxation

Q72. According to Income Tax Act “zero coupon bond” means a bond

• (1) issued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank on or after the 1st day of June, 2005;
• (2) in respect of which no payment and benefit is received or receivable before maturity or redemption from infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank
• (3) which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify in this behalf.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(48) Income-tax Act, 1961.

Taxation

Q73. Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by

• (1) The Constitution (one hundred and first) Act 2016 ✔
• (2) The Constitution (one hundred and second) Act 2016
• (3) The Constitution (eighty fourth) Act 2016
• (4) The Constitution (seventy-seven) Act 2016

Answer: (1)

The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.

Evidence / BSA

Q74. A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of them. – under which section of the India Evidence Act.

• (1) Section 12
• (2) Section 6 ✔
• (3) Section 3
• (4) Section 5

Answer: (2)

Illustration (b) to s. 6.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q75. Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with

• (1) Documentary Evidence
• (2) Exclusion of Oral Evidence
• (3) Burden of proof as to ownership ✔
• (4) Proof of guilt.

Answer: (3)

s. 110 — burden of proof as to ownership.

Law now: Now s. 113 BSA.

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q76. Section 113 (a) of the Evidence Act deals with

• (1) Presumption as to abetment of murder
• (2) Presumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a woman
• (3) Presumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
• (4) Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 113A — abetment of suicide by a married woman.

Law now: Now s. 117 BSA.

IPC / BNS

Q77. In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in issue

• (1) Queen Empress Vs Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• (2) Niharendu Dutt Mazumdar Vs Emperor
• (3) Kedar Nath singh Vs State of Bihar
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Tilak (1897), Niharendu Dutt Majumdar (1942) and Kedar Nath Singh (1962) were all sedition cases.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q78. Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. – is an offence under

• (1) Section 295
• (2) Section 295A ✔
• (3) Section 265A
• (4) Section 276

Answer: (2)

s. 295A IPC.

Law now: Now s. 299 BNS.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q79. Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except

• (1) A sentence of death
• (2) Imprisonment for life
• (3) Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 29(1) CrPC.

Law now: Now s. 23 BNSS.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q80. Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil procedure is dealt under

• (1) Section 21A
• (2) Section 15
• (3) Section 218
• (4) Section 83 ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 83 CPC — suits by aliens.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q81. An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code 1908 as per order XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor – is known as

• (1) IT Order
• (2) Garnishee Order ✔
• (3) Decree Holder order
• (4) Bank Order

Answer: (2)

Garnishee order (O. 21 R. 46A onwards).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q82. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with

• (1) Interpleader suit ✔
• (2) Interlocutory Order
• (3) Restitution Order
• (4) Attachment Order

Answer: (1)

s. 88 and O. 35 CPC — interpleader.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q83. Vis major means

• (1) Act of God ✔
• (2) Act of Individual
• (3) Act of other party
• (4) Act of plaintiff

Answer: (1)

Vis major — act of God.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q84. According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means

• (1) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts ✔
• (2) an act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
• (3) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

An act of State cannot be questioned by municipal courts.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q85. In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the committal of a wrongful act, are known as

• (1) Abettors
• (2) Joint tortfessors. ✔
• (3) Tort holders
• (4) Tort holders in common

Answer: (2)

Joint tortfeasors.

Environmental Law

Q86. M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India 1986 Shriram food and Fertilisers case relates to

• (1) Olieum Gas leak ✔
• (2) Ganga water cleaning
• (3) Child labour
• (4) Bonded labour

Answer: (1)

M.C. Mehta (Shriram, 1986) — oleum gas leak.

Administrative Law

Q87. A. K. Kraipak Vs Union of India relates to

• (1) Likelihood of Bias ✔
• (2) Delegated Legislation
• (3) Administrative Discretion
• (4) Notice

Answer: (1)

A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1969) — real likelihood of bias.

Administrative Law

Q88. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of

• (1) Doctrine of Ultravires
• (2) Malafides
• (3) Exclusion of Judicial Review
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

All three grounds are available.

Code of Civil Procedure · Key corrected

Q89. The principle of Res Judicata is dealt under Section —- of CPC

• (1) 9
• (2) 10
• (3) 11 ✔
• (4) 12

Answer: (3)

s. 11 CPC — res judicata.

Note: The published key gives (2).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q90. Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with

• (1) Presumption as to decisions of tribunals
• (2) Presumption judgments as to foreign ✔
• (3) Presumption as to judgments of the lower court
• (4) Presumption as to judgments of High Court

Answer: (2)

s. 14 CPC — presumption as to foreign judgments.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q91. A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A

• (1) Only in Delhi
• (2) Only in Kolkata
• (3) in both the place of Delhi and Kolkata
• (4) either in Kolkata or in Delhi. ✔

Answer: (4)

Illustration (b) to s. 19 CPC.

Labour Law

Q92. “Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability” – Justice Krishna lyer. Name the case.

• (1) Chandramalai workmen Estate Vs Its
• (2) Associated Cement Ltd., Vs Their workmen
• (3) Gujarat Steel Tubes Vs Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha ✔
• (4) Indian General Navigation of Railway Co. Ltd., Vs Their workmen

Answer: (3)

Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha (1980).

Labour Law · Law changed

Q93. A workman aggrieved by the order of…………… may directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government

• (1) Dismissal, discharge and retrenchment
• (2) Dismissal, discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service ✔
• (3) Discharge simpliciter exclusively
• (4) Dismissal and retrenchment exclusively

Answer: (2)

s. 2A ID Act — dismissal, discharge, retrenchment or other termination.

Law now: Now in the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q94. The national consumer dispute redressal commission was constituted in the year

• (1) 1988 ✔
• (2) 1998
• (3) 1999
• (4) 1997

Answer: (1)

The National Commission was set up in 1988.

Torts, MV & Consumer · Law changed

Q95. What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act, 1986

• (1) 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
• (2) 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
• (3) 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
• (4) 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 24A CPA 1986 — two years.

Law now: Same in s. 69 CPA 2019.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q96. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of.

• (1) 14 years
• (2) 7 years ✔
• (3) 18 years
• (4) 21 years

Answer: (2)

s. 82 IPC — under seven years.

Law now: Now s. 20 BNS.

IPC / BNS

Q97. R. V. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that

• (1) Killing an innocent life to save his own is not a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder ✔
• (2) Necessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder, killing an innocent life to save his own may become inevitable
• (3) Killing out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder.
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

R. v. Dudley and Stephens (1884).

Family Law

Q98. On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for

• (1) Section 6 ✔
• (2) section 10
• (3) Section 11
• (4) Section 13

Answer: (1)

The 2005 Amendment substituted s. 6 HSA.

Family Law

Q99. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to

• (1) Void marriages
• (2) Voidable marriages
• (3) Ceremonies of Hindu marriage
• (4) Conditions of Hindu marriage ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 5 HMA — conditions of a Hindu marriage.

Family Law

Q100. A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncle’s son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is

• (1) Valid
• (2) Voidable
• (3) Void ✔
• (4) Valid only in north India

Answer: (3)

First cousins are within the prohibited degrees under the Special Marriage Act (s. 4(d)), so the marriage is void unless custom permits.