AIBE 16 (XVI) 2021 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations: All 100 Questions Solved

Read this first

• 4 published keys were corrected: where the law points to a different option, the correct answer is shown and the note says what the circulated key gave.
• 10 answers are marked “Law now”: right when asked, but the law has changed since. Read these twice; examiners now frame old concepts under the new section numbers.
• Want every paper? See all AIBE previous year question papers (AIBE III to XXI).

Family Law

Q1. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, where a decree for restitution of conjugal rights has been passed and there has been no restitution between the parties for one year or more after the decree, the Act

• (1) does not permit any party to that marriage to apply for divorce
• (2) does not permit the party against whom the decree was passed to apply for divorce
• (3) permits either party to that marriage to apply for divorce ✔
• (4) permits any person related to either party to apply for divorce

Answer: (3)

s. 13(1A)(ii) HMA — either party may seek divorce after a year without restitution following the decree.

Family Law

Q2. The commission of offences under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 are

• (1) Cognizable and bailable
• (2) Non cognizable and non-bailable
• (3) Cognizable and non-bailable ✔
• (4) Non cognizable and bailable

Answer: (3)

s. 15 Prohibition of Child Marriage Act — cognizable and non-bailable.

Arbitration & ADR

Q3. An arbitration proceeding is a

• (1) Judicial proceeding
• (2) Quasi-judicial proceeding ✔
• (3) Administrative proceeding
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Arbitration is a quasi-judicial proceeding.

Arbitration & ADR

Q4. What is ad hoc arbitration?

• (1) It is a proceeding administered by the parties themselves, with rules created solely, for that specific case
• (2) Parties make their own arrangement with respect to all aspects of the arbitration, including the laws and rules
• (3) The parties themselves fix the seat of arbitration, the language, and the scope and issues to be resolved
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

In ad hoc arbitration the parties themselves settle the rules, seat, language and scope.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q5. Which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code define the ‘Mesne Profit?

• (1) Section 2 (4)
• (2) Section 2 (14)
• (3) Section 2 (6)
• (4) Section 2 (12) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(12) CPC — mesne profits.

Evidence / BSA

Q6. How many kinds of presumptions are there as classified by the Supreme Court?

• (1) Permissive presumptions or presumptions of facts
• (2) Compelling presumptions or presumptions of law (rebuttable presumptions)
• (3) Irrebuttable presumptions of law or conclusive presumptions.
• (4) All of them ✔

Answer: (4)

Presumptions of fact, rebuttable presumptions of law and conclusive presumptions.

Constitutional Law

Q7. What is the leading decision in the case of Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India?

• (1) Right of hearing ✔
• (2) Separation of powers
• (3) Delegated legislation
• (4) Rule of evidence

Answer: (1)

Maneka Gandhi (1978) — the passport was impounded without a hearing; fair procedure includes audi alteram partem.

Professional Ethics

Q8. Advocate’s Act 1961 came into force on:

• (1) 19th May, 1961 ✔
• (2) 19th April, 1961
• (3) 1st May, 1961
• (4) 19th January, 1961

Answer: (1)

The Act received assent on 19 May 1961.

Note: Its provisions were brought into force in stages from 1961.

Labour Law

Q9. A Railway servant was killed in a bus accident during the course of employment. His family members may claim compensation under

• (1) The Motor Vehicle Act
• (2) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
• (3) Both (a) and (b)
• (4) Either under (a) OR under (b) ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 167 MV Act — compensation under the MV Act or the EC Act, not both.

Labour Law

Q10. “Casting Couch” in Bollywood, the Indian film industry, is an example of

• (1) sexual assault
• (2) sexual harassment ✔
• (3) both (a) and (b)
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Casting couch is sexual harassment — a demand for sexual favours tied to work.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q11. According to section 2 of motor vehicles Act, 1988 the term motor cab means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not more than

• (1) 5 passengers including the driver
• (2) 6 passengers including the driver
• (3) 5 passengers excluding the driver
• (4) 6 passengers excluding the driver ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 2(25) MV Act — not more than six passengers excluding the driver.

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q12. The National Commission of Consumer Protection is composed of

• (1) 7 members:
• (2) 5 members; ✔
• (3) 8 members;
• (4) 6 members:

Answer: (2)

s. 20 CPA 1986 — a President and at least four members.

Law now: Under s. 54 CPA 2019 the composition is a President and at least four members, as prescribed.

Family Law

Q13. Which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with ” amount of maintenance”?

• (1) Section 21
• (2) Section 22
• (3) Section 23 ✔
• (4) Section 24

Answer: (3)

s. 23 HAMA — amount of maintenance.

Constitutional Law

Q14. In which of the following case the Supreme Court First of all made an attempt to look into the question regarding the extension of the right to life to the right to Health and other Hygienic conditions

• (1) The Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs State of Uttar Pradesh.
• (2) M.C Mehta Vs Union of India
• (3) V. Lakshmipathy Vs State of Karnataka
• (4) F.K. Hussain Vs Union of India. ✔

Answer: (4)

F.K. Hussain v. Union of India (1990) read health and hygienic conditions into the right to life.

Environmental Law

Q15. Basel Convention is associated with one of the following –

• (1) International Trade in Endangered species of wild Fauna & flora
• (2) Climate change
• (3) Protection of Ozone layer
• (4) The control of transboundary movement of Hazardous waste and their disposal. ✔

Answer: (4)

Basel Convention (1989) — transboundary movement of hazardous wastes.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q16. The nature of Cyber crime is

• (1) Tangible
• (2) Intangible ✔
• (3) Of mental Violence
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Cyber crime is intangible in nature.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q17. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “Foreign Court” means

• (1) A court situated outside India
• (2) A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India ✔
• (3) A court situated in India, applying foreign law
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 2(5) CPC.

Constitutional Law

Q18. Misuse of mechanism of PIL means

• (1) filing PIL for protection of private interest
• (2) filing PIL for oblique motive
• (3) filing PIL only for publicity
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

All three are forms of misuse.

Administrative Law

Q19. What is meant by procedural ultra-vires?

• (1) It is the non-observance of the procedural norms by the rule making authority
• (2) It may make the rule ultra vires due to non- observance of rule-making authority and hence become void
• (3) It means the lacuna in the procedure of law
• (4) (a) and (b) ✔

Answer: (4)

Non-observance of mandatory procedure makes the rule void.

Constitutional Law

Q20. The ground of ” error of law apparent on the face of the record” is connected with which of the writ?

• (1) Quo-warranto
• (2) Mandamus
• (3) Habeas Corpus
• (4) Certiorari ✔

Answer: (4)

Certiorari lies for error of law apparent on the face of the record.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q21. Under Civil Procedure Code find the incorrect match:

• (1) Section 5… Revenue Court
• (2) Section 7………… Provincial Small Causes Court
• (3) Section 9………… Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts ✔
• (4) Section 8………… Presidency Small Cause Courts

Answer: (3)

s. 9 CPC gives jurisdiction over civil suits; pecuniary jurisdiction is in s. 6.

Contract & Property

Q22. What is the Period of Limitation for expeditious disposal of Suit under Specific Relief Act 1963:

• (1) 6 months
• (2) 10 months
• (3) 12 months ✔
• (4) 18 months

Answer: (3)

s. 20E SRA (2018) — within twelve months of service of summons, extendable by six months.

CrPC / BNSS

Q23. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment

• (1) Not exceeding seven years ✔
• (2) Exceeding seven years
• (3) For life
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

s. 29(1) CrPC — up to seven years.

IPC / BNS

Q24. Harbouring an offender who has escaped from custody, or whose apprehension has been ordered, if the offence be capital is dealt under

• (1) Section 215 of IPC
• (2) Section 216 of IPC ✔
• (3) Section 217 of IPC
• (4) Section 218 of IPC

Answer: (2)

s. 216 IPC — harbouring an escaped offender.

Jurisprudence

Q25. The maxim ‘actus not facit reum nisi mens sit red’ means

• (1) There can be no crime without a guilty mind ✔
• (2) Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
• (3) Crime is the result of guilty mind
• (4) In crime intention is relevant, motive is irrelevant

Answer: (1)

Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.

Contract & Property

Q26. Law laid down under section -73 of Indian Contract Act 1872 is related to which of the following cases:

• (1) Hochster v. De la Tour
• (2) Robinson v. Davison
• (3) Hadley v. Baxendale ✔
• (4) Dickinson v. Dodds

Answer: (3)

Hadley v. Baxendale (1854) — remoteness of damage, s. 73.

Contract & Property

Q27. A suit to recover specific immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act must be brought within

• (1) Within 7 months
• (2) Within 6 months ✔
• (3) Within 8 months
• (4) Within 10 months

Answer: (2)

s. 6 SRA — within six months of dispossession.

Land Acquisition

Q28. Who appoints the Commissioner for rehabilitation and resettlement under the LARR Act?

• (1) LARR Authority
• (2) Minister of Environment and Forests
• (3) Central Government
• (4) State Government ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 44 RFCTLARR Act — the State Government appoints the Commissioner for R&R.

CrPC / BNSS

Q29. The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C as security for good behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period not exceeding:

• (1) Six months
• (2) Two years
• (3) One year ✔
• (4) Three months

Answer: (3)

s. 109 CrPC — up to one year.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q30. The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be paid to the wife as maintenance under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C 1973 was removed in:

• (1) 1973
• (2) 1989
• (3) 2001 ✔
• (4) 2007

Answer: (3)

The Rs. 500 ceiling under s. 125 was removed in 2001.

Law now: Now s. 144 BNSS.

Intellectual Property

Q31. The term “WIPO” stands for:

• (1) World Investment policy organization
• (2) World intellectual property organization ✔
• (3) Wildlife Investigation and Policing organization
• (4) World institute for Prevention of organized crime

Answer: (2)

World Intellectual Property Organization.

Taxation

Q32. Health and education cess is applicable to –

• (1) All assesses ✔
• (2) All assesses except company
• (3) Individual
• (4) Company only

Answer: (1)

The 4% health and education cess applies to all assessees.

Contract & Property

Q33. Contractual Liability arises, where:

• (1) There is offer and acceptance only.
• (2) There is intention to create legal relation. ✔
• (3) There is loss to one party
• (4) The loss of one party is the gain of other party

Answer: (2)

Balfour v. Balfour (1919) — intention to create legal relations.

Code of Civil Procedure · Key corrected

Q34. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:

• (1) Directory
• (2) Mandatory ✔
• (3) None Mandatory
• (4) Discretionary

Answer: (2)

s. 10 CPC is mandatory; the court has no discretion to proceed with the trial.

Note: The published key gives (1).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q35. Constructive res-judicata is contained in which of the following?

• (1) Explanation III to Section 11
• (2) Explanation IV to Section 11 ✔
• (3) Explanation VI to Section 11
• (4) Explanation VIII to Section 11

Answer: (2)

Explanation IV to s. 11 CPC.

Constitutional Law

Q36. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity of section 377 Indian Penal Code reversed by Supreme Court in:

• (1) NALSA Vs Union of India
• (2) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi
• (3) Shabnam Hasmi Vs Union of India
• (4) Suresh Kaushal Vs Naz Foundation ✔

Answer: (4)

Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013).

Note: Koushal was itself overruled in Navtej Singh Johar (2018).

Arbitration & ADR

Q37. Reference to the Arbitration is provided in which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

• (1) Section 7
• (2) Section 8 ✔
• (3) Section 9
• (4) Section 10

Answer: (2)

s. 8 — power to refer parties to arbitration.

Evidence / BSA

Q38. Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following type of conduct would be material?

• (1) Change of life
• (2) Evasion of justice
• (3) Fear, trembling
• (4) All of them ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 8 — subsequent conduct of all these kinds is relevant.

Constitutional Law

Q39. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is available in which of the following clauses?

• (1) Clause (1) (E) ✔
• (2) Clause (1) (D)
• (3) Clause (1) (B)
• (4) Clause (1) (C)

Answer: (1)

Art. 19(1)(e).

Evidence / BSA · Law changed

Q40. Under which section of the Evidence Act, admissions are defined?

• (1) 17 ✔
• (2) 16
• (3) 15
• (4) 18

Answer: (1)

s. 17 — admission defined.

Law now: Now s. 15 BSA.

CrPC / BNSS

Q41. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the investigating officer should be allowed to refer to the records of investigation

• (1) State of Karnataka Vs Yarappa Reddi ✔
• (2) Mohammed Khalid Vs State of West Bengal
• (3) Baburam Vs State of U. P.
• (4) State of Rajasthan Vs Om prakash

Answer: (1)

State of Karnataka v. Yarappa Reddy (1999).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q42. If a party who obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do that without the leave of the Court

• (1) Fifteen days
• (2) Fourteen days ✔
• (3) Twenty days
• (4) Thirty days

Answer: (2)

O. 6 R. 18 CPC — fourteen days.

Professional Ethics

Q43. Punishment of advocates for misconduct has been given under section of the Advocate’s Act – 1961

• (1) 30
• (2) 32
• (3) 35 ✔
• (4) None

Answer: (3)

s. 35 Advocates Act.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q44. Under which Section of IPC, Professional Negligence is often invoked against medical professionals in cases alleging professional negligence?

• (1) 303A
• (2) 304A ✔
• (3) 302
• (4) 305

Answer: (2)

s. 304A IPC.

Law now: Now s. 106 BNS.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q45. A offers to bribe B, a public servant, as a reward for showing A some favour in the exercise of B’s official functions. B accepts the bribe

• (1) A has abetted the offence define in Section 160, IPC
• (2) A has abetted the offence define in Section 161, IPC ✔
• (3) A has abetted the offence define in Section 162, IPC
• (4) A has abetted the offence define in Section 163, IPC

Answer: (2)

Illustration (a) to s. 109 IPC.

Law now: ss. 161-165A IPC were moved to the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

Contract & Property

Q46. When Perpetual Injunction may be granted-

• (1) Where the defendant is trustee of the Property for the plaintiff
• (2) Where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage.
• (3) Compensation in money would not afford adequate relief.
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 38(3) SRA.

Professional Ethics

Q47. An advocate is under an obligation to uphold the rule of law and ensure that the public justice system is enabled to function at its full potential. Any violation of the principle of professional ethic by an advocate is unfortunate and unacceptable. Ignoring even a minor violation/misconduct militates against the fundamental foundation of the public justice system. It was said in

• (1) Hikmat Ali Khan Vs Ishwar Prasad Arya, (1997) 3 SCC 131
• (2) O. P. Sharma Vs high court of Punjab & Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC 86 ✔
• (3) L.D. Jaikwal Vs state of Uttar Pradesh, (1984) 3 SCC 405
• (4) Shamsher singh Bedi Vs High court of Punjab & Haryana, (1996) 7 SCC

Answer: (2)

O.P. Sharma v. High Court of Punjab & Haryana (2011).

Company Law & NI Act

Q48. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 contains provision relating to

• (1) incorporation of company
• (2) formation of companies with charitable objects, etc ✔
• (3) effect of registration
• (4) Effect of memorandum and articles.

Answer: (2)

s. 8 Companies Act, 2013 — companies with charitable objects.

Company Law & NI Act

Q49. The verification of the registered office shall be furnished to the registrar within a period of incorporation

• (1) 30 days ✔
• (2) 60 days
• (3) 90 days
• (4) 120 days

Answer: (1)

s. 12(2) — within thirty days of incorporation.

Cyber Law / IT Act

Q50. Cyber law deals with

• (1) All activities concerning the internet
• (2) IPR
• (3) E-commerce
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Cyber law covers internet activity, IPR and e- commerce.

Labour Law · Law changed

Q51. The payment of compensation to railway employees by the railway administration for injury by accident is governed by:

• (1) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923 ✔
• (2) The payment of Wages Act, 1936
• (3) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
• (4) The Workmen Compensation Act, 1986

Answer: (1)

The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 covers railway servants.

Law now: Now subsumed in the Code on Social Security, 2020.

Labour Law

Q52. The minimum amount of compensation payable under Employees Compensation Act, 1923 in case of total permanent disablement of a railway servant due to accident is Rs____.

• (1) Rs 80,000
• (2) Rs 90,000
• (3) Rs 1,40,000 ✔
• (4) Rs 1,20,000

Answer: (3)

s. 4(1)(b) EC Act — at least Rs. 1,40,000 for permanent total disablement.

Intellectual Property

Q53. A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo.

• (1) Copy rights
• (2) Trade mark ✔
• (3) Patent
• (4) Industrial designs

Answer: (2)

A logo is protected as a trade mark.

Arbitration & ADR

Q54. The Section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, dealing with the time of commencement of arbitral proceeding is

• (1) Section 20
• (2) Section 21 ✔
• (3) Section 22
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

s. 21 — commencement of arbitral proceedings.

CrPC / BNSS · Law changed

Q55. Under Criminal procedure Code 1973, who shall record the information of rape being given by a rape victim?

• (1) Officer in charge of the police station
• (2) Deputy Superintendent of police
• (3) Officer not below the rank of Sub Inspector
• (4) Woman police officer or any Woman officer ✔

Answer: (4)

Proviso to s. 154(1) CrPC — recorded by a woman police officer or any woman officer.

Law now: Now s. 173 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q56. Under the provision of the code of criminal procedure, 1973

• (1) Summons can be oral
• (2) Summons cannot be served on corporate entities
• (3) Summons are either for appearance or for producing a document/thing ✔
• (4) Summons can be served to servants in case the person on whose name summons are made cannot be found

Answer: (3)

A summons is for appearance or production; it must be written, can be served on companies (s. 63) and is left with an adult family member, not a servant (s. 64).

Constitutional Law

Q57. Every person who is a member of a defence service or hold a any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the

• (1) Prime Minister
• (2) President ✔
• (3) Council of Minister
• (4) Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (2)

Art. 310 — during the pleasure of the President.

Family Law

Q58. Which of the following statement/statements is/are false for the purpose of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
I. It is assumed that a person who is not Muslim, Santhal, Christian, Jew or Parsi by religion is Hindu
II. A person who belongs to Lingayat sub sect is assumed to be Hindu III. A person converted who converted to another religion needs to follow local ritual/ custom for converting back to Hinduism

• (1) I only
• (2) I and II
• (3) III only ✔
• (4) I and III

Answer: (3)

Only III is false: reconversion needs no formal ritual if the community accepts the person (Perumal Nadar v. Ponnuswami, 1971).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q59. Provision for settlement of dispute outside court has been provided under Section………. of Civil Procedure Code

• (1) 91
• (2) 89 ✔
• (3) 51
• (4) 151

Answer: (2)

s. 89 CPC.

Evidence / BSA

Q60. The Indian Evidence Act came into force on

• (1) 6th October, 1860
• (2) 1st March, 1974
• (3) 15th March, 1872
• (4) 1st September, 1872 ✔

Answer: (4)

The Evidence Act came into force on 1 September 1872.

Constitutional Law

Q61. According to the provisions of Article 315 of the Indian Constitution:
I. There shall be a public service commission for the Union and a Public Service commission for each state.
II. The public service commission for the Union, if requested to do by the governor of a state may, with the approval of the president, agree to serve all or any of the needs of the state Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (1) Only I
• (2) Only II
• (3) I and II ✔
• (4) None of them

Answer: (3)

Art. 315(1) and (4).

CrPC / BNSS · Key corrected · Law changed

Q62. Any private person may arrest any person who:

• (1) Commits non-bailable offence in his presence
• (2) Commits non-bailable offence and cognizable offence in his presence ✔
• (3) Commits compoundable offence in his presence
• (4) Commits offence in his presence or is a proclaimed offender

Answer: (2)

s. 43 CrPC — a private person may arrest one who commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence in his presence, or a proclaimed offender.

Note: The published key gives (4), but a private person cannot arrest for any offence.

Law now: Now s. 40 BNSS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q63. How long a warrant of arrest shall remain in force?

• (1) 6 years
• (2) 10 years
• (3) 12 years
• (4) Until executed or cancelled ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 70(2) CrPC — until cancelled or executed.

Taxation

Q64. Rate of additional Depreciation will be —– under section 32 Indian Income Tax Act

• (1) 10%
• (2) 20% ✔
• (3) 15%
• (4) 30%

Answer: (2)

s. 32(1)(iia) Income-tax Act, 1961 — 20 per cent.

Taxation

Q65. Amount of deduction under section 24 of The Income Tax Act from annual value is –

• (1) 1/2 of Annual Value
• (2) 1/3 of Annual Value
• (3) 3/10 of Annual Value ✔
• (4) 17/10 of Annual Value

Answer: (3)

s. 24(a) — standard deduction of 30 per cent of annual value.

Constitutional Law

Q66. The test of reasonableness is not wholly……… test and its contours are Fairley indicated by constitution.

• (1) Subjective ✔
• (2) Objective
• (3) Descriptive
• (4) Summative

Answer: (1)

M.R.F. Ltd. v. Inspector, Kerala Govt. (1998) — reasonableness is not a wholly subjective test.

Constitutional Law

Q67. The power to enact a law relating to the citizenship of India is left to……… under the provisions of Article 11 of the Indian Constitution.

• (1) President
• (2) Council of ministers
• (3) House of people
• (4) Parliament ✔

Answer: (4)

Art. 11 — Parliament regulates citizenship by law.

Contract & Property

Q68. Promissory estoppel against Government agencies is decided in:

• (1) Tweedle Vs Atkinson
• (2) Dutton Vs Poole
• (3) Pournami Oil Mills v. State of Kerala ✔
• (4) Kedar Nath Vs Gauri Mohamad

Answer: (3)

Pournami Oil Mills v. State of Kerala (1986).

Contract & Property

Q69. Frustration of contract is provided by which section of the India contract Act?

• (1) Sec. 73
• (2) Sec. 70
• (3) Sec. 2 (d)
• (4) Sec. 56 ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 56 Contract Act — frustration.

Labour Law

Q70. Schedule II of the Employees Compensation Act 1923 deals with

• (1) Age factor for calculating the amount of compensation
• (2) List of persons who are included in the definition of ‘Employee’ ✔
• (3) List of occupational
• (4) List of injuries Deemed to Result in Permanent Total Disablement

Answer: (2)

Schedule II EC Act — persons included in the definition of employee.

Evidence / BSA

Q71. Admission can be broadly categorised into:

• (1) Judicial
• (2) Extra-judicial
• (3) Either A and B
• (4) Both A and B ✔

Answer: (4)

Admissions are judicial or extra-judicial.

Evidence / BSA

Q72. Section 66, of Indian Evidence Act lays down:

• (1) A notice must be given before secondary evidence can be received under section 65 (a), Indian Evidence Act
• (2) Notice to produce a document must be in writing
• (3) Order XI, Rules 15, of Civil Procedure Code, prescribes the kind of notice to produce a document
• (4) All of them ✔

Answer: (4)

s. 66 — notice to produce before secondary evidence under s. 65(a).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q73. Maxim “Res Ipsa Loquitur” means: –

• (1) The thing speaks for itself ✔
• (2) Where there is right there is remedy
• (3) Where there is remedy there is right
• (4) Where there is no fault there is no remedy

Answer: (1)

Res ipsa loquitur.

IPC / BNS

Q74. The Committee which led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by

• (1) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
• (2) Justice Altamas Kabir
• (3) Justice J.S Verma ✔
• (4) Justice A.S. Anand

Answer: (3)

Justice J.S. Verma Committee.

CrPC / BNSS

Q75. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure Code, non-cognizable offences are:

• (1) Public wrongs
• (2) Private wrongs ✔
• (3) Both public and private wrongs
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Non-cognizable offences are treated as private wrongs; police need a Magistrate’s order to investigate (s. 155).

Constitutional Law

Q76. A discrimination against a man or a woman, only on grounds of………… would be violative of Article 15 (1)

• (1) Sex ✔
• (2) Remuneration
• (3) Place of birth
• (4) Religion

Answer: (1)

Art. 15(1) — sex.

Note: Religion and place of birth are also Art. 15(1) grounds; the “man or woman” framing points to sex.

Constitutional Law

Q77. The “Objective Resolution” adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947 was drafted by whom

• (1) Jawaharlal Nehru ✔
• (2) Dr. BR Ambedkar
• (3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
• (4) B.N. Rao

Answer: (1)

Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946.

Constitutional Law

Q78. Right to the property was eliminated from the list of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of

• (1) Indira Gandhi
• (2) Charan Singh
• (3) Rajiv Gandhi
• (4) Morarji Desai ✔

Answer: (4)

The 44th Amendment (1978) was passed under Morarji Desai.

Evidence / BSA

Q79. When the accused states, “I will produce the share which I received in such and such robbery” which of the following are not admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian Evidence Act?
I. An admission that there was a robbery
II. An admission that the accused took part in it III. An admission that he got part of the property IV. A statement as to where the property is

• (1) I II and III ✔
• (2) III and IV
• (3) II, III and IV
• (4) All of above

Answer: (1)

Only the statement of where the property is, leading to discovery, is admissible (s. 27).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q80. The rule of Strict Liability is based on the decision in:

• (1) Donoghue Vs Stevenson
• (2) Homes Vs Ashford
• (3) Rylands Vs Fletcher ✔
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Rylands v. Fletcher (1868).

Torts, MV & Consumer

Q81. The Rule of Last opportunity was Laid down in:-

• (1) Davies v. Mann ✔
• (2) State of A.P. Vs Ranganna
• (3) Nugent vs Smith.
• (4) Kalawati Vs state of HP

Answer: (1)

Davies v. Mann (1842).

Family Law

Q82. In which of the following case was it held that “the rights conferred under section 25 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 supersedes any contract to the contrary. The fact that the date of decree makes no difference”?

• (1) Surenderabal vs Suppiah
• (2) Mukesh teli Vs Bharti Teli
• (3) Sesi Ammal vs Thaiyu Ammal ✔
• (4) Laxmi Vs Krishna

Answer: (3)

Sesi Ammal v. Thaiyu Ammal.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q83. A plaint has to be presented to the Court under Order IV, Rule 1 in

• (1) Single copy
• (2) Duplicate ✔
• (3) Triplicate
• (4) No fixed rule

Answer: (2)

O. 4 R. 1 CPC — the plaint is presented in duplicate.

Code of Civil Procedure

Q84. Omission to give notice under Order XXI. Rule 22 will

• (1) Render the execution null and void ✔
• (2) Render the execution irregular
• (3) Render the execution voidable
• (4) Not affect the execution

Answer: (1)

Omission of the O. 21 R. 22 notice renders the execution proceedings void (Raghunath Das v. Sundar Das Khetri, 1914).

Code of Civil Procedure

Q85. Where a decree is passed against the Union of India or State for the Act done in the official capacity of the person concerned, under section. 82 CPC, execution, shall not be issued on any such decree unless the decree remains unsatisfied for a period of

• (1) 3 months from the date of decree ✔
• (2) 6 months from the date of the decree
• (3) 1 year from the date of the decree
• (4) 2 years from the date of decree

Answer: (1)

s. 82(2) CPC — three months from the decree.

Family Law

Q86. On which of the following dates did Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 come into operation?

• (1) 18th May, 1955 ✔
• (2) 17th June, 1955
• (3) 22nd May, 1955
• (4) 18th June, 1955

Answer: (1)

The HMA came into force on 18 May 1955.

Family Law · Key corrected

Q87. Which of the following properties will section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, govern?
I. Tarwad
II. Tavazhi III. Kutumba IV. Kavaru V. Illom

• (1) I, III, and V
• (2) II, IV and V
• (3) I and II
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

Explanation to s. 30 HSA names tarwad, tavazhi, illom, kutumba and kavaru.

Note: The published key gives (3).

Professional Ethics

Q88. The maximum limit of the members of the state bar council:

• (1) 15
• (2) 20
• (3) 25 ✔
• (4) None

Answer: (3)

s. 3(2)(b) Advocates Act — up to 25 members.

Contract & Property

Q89. Specific Relief Act 1963 contains –

• (1) 6 chapters and 40 Sections
• (2) 7 chapters and 42 Sections
• (3) 8 chapters and 43 Sections
• (4) 8 chapters and 44 Sections ✔

Answer: (4)

As enacted, 8 chapters and 44 sections.

Note: The 2018 Amendment added ss. 14A and 20A-20C.

Constitutional Law · Key corrected

Q90. The phrase “file a PIL, ostensibly in public interest but, in fact, to serve personal or private interests” means –

• (1) filing PIL for protection of only public interest
• (2) filing PIL for protection of both public and private interest
• (3) filing PIL for protection of only private interest
• (4) filing PIL alleging it to be in public interest but actually seeking protection of private interest ✔

Answer: (4)

The phrase means a PIL claimed to be in public interest but really for private gain.

Note: The published key gives (3).

Constitutional Law

Q91. Filing of frivolous PILs results in –

• (1) increasing backlog of cases
• (2) wastage of resources
• (3) lesser availability of time for hearing other genuine cases
• (4) All of the above ✔

Answer: (4)

All three consequences follow.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q92. Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill X. Is Z guilty of an offence. Has X the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane?

• (1) Z has not committed any offence as per section 98 of IPC and same right of private. defence to X if Z is mad ✔
• (2) As per Section 98 of IPC, X has committed an offence and no right of private defence to X
• (3) Z has committed an offence for not using his mind
• (4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

Illustration to s. 98 IPC.

Law now: Now s. 36 BNS.

Constitutional Law

Q93. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?

• (1) Article 21
• (2) Article 21A
• (3) Article 22 ✔
• (4) Article 22A

Answer: (3)

Art. 22.

Constitutional Law

Q94. Article 300A of Indian Constitution i.e. Right to property has been inserted in the Constitution by…….

• (1) 44th Amendment Act ✔
• (2) 42nd Amendment Act
• (3) 40th Amendment Act
• (4) 51st Amendment Act

Answer: (1)

The 44th Amendment (1978).

Family Law

Q95. Which of the following sections of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat ) Application Act, 1937 have been repealed/ amended by section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?

• (1) Section 4
• (2) Section 5 ✔
• (3) Section 6
• (4) Section 7

Answer: (2)

s. 6 DMMA repealed s. 5 of the Shariat Act.

IPC / BNS · Law changed

Q96. As per section 53 of IPC, the word “injury” denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person’s

• (1) Body
• (2) Mind
• (3) Reputation
• (4) All above ✔

Answer: (4)

“Injury” includes harm to body, mind, reputation or property.

Note: The definition is in s. 44 IPC, not s. 53.

Law now: Now s. 2(14) BNS.

CrPC / BNSS

Q97. Which of the following cases can be cured under section 465 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?

• (1) Entertaining of complaint without complying with section 195 and 340 of the Cr.P.C
• (2) The reading and recording of the evidence taken in one case into another companion case ✔
• (3) The examination of witness in absence of the accused
• (4) Non-Compliance with 235 (2)

Answer: (2)

Using evidence recorded in a companion case is a curable irregularity unless it causes a failure of justice.

CrPC / BNSS

Q98. Which of the following statements hold true for de nova trials?

• (1) Omission or illegality in the procedure even if it does not affect the core of the case can become a ground for calling de nova trials
• (2) A de nova trial should be the last resort ✔
• (3) the court originally trying the case can order de nova trial
• (4) None of these

Answer: (2)

A de novo trial is ordered only as a last resort.

Land Acquisition

Q99. In case of land acquisition by the Central Government for public- private partnership projects, consent of how many affected families is mandated by the LARR Act?

• (1) 60%
• (2) 70% ✔
• (3) 80%
• (4) 90%

Answer: (2)

s. 2(2)(b) RFCTLARR Act — 70 per cent for PPP projects, 80 per cent for private companies.

Taxation · Law changed

Q100. A company which is not a domestic company will pay income tax at the rate of:-

• (1) 25%
• (2) 30%
• (3) 40% ✔
• (4) 20%

Answer: (3)

The rate for a foreign company was 40 per cent.

Law now: Reduced to 35 per cent from FY 2024-25.