aryana ADA Pre 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key & Explanations

Haryana Public Service Commission  •  Assistant District Attorney

Haryana ADA Pre 2026 — Solved Question Paper with Answer Key & Explanations

All 100 English questions reproduced verbatim from the official paper, with the correct answer and a source-based explanation for each.

Solved by Akinchan Aggarwal, Advocate, Punjab & Haryana High Court  |  Published on Lawizard

Below is the complete Haryana Assistant District Attorney (ADA) Preliminary Examination 2026 paper (Booklet Series NN5_D), fully solved. As requested, only the English version of each question is reproduced — verbatim, exactly as printed — and each is followed by the correct answer and a concise explanation grounded in the governing statute or leading case (BNS 2023, BNSS 2023, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023, CPC 1908, Indian Contract Act 1872, Sale of Goods Act, Constitution, Muslim/Hindu Personal Law and Haryana GK).

How to read this: Each block shows the question exactly as it appeared, the four options, the ✅ correct answer, and the reasoning. A handful of Haryana current-affairs / obscure case-law items are marked “verify with official key” where the official answer could differ.

Q1. Consider the following pairs:

1. Plea of irresistible impulse : Kopsch (1925) 19 Cri. App. Rep 50 (CA)
2. Defence of Drunkenness : Beard Case (1920) AC 479
3. Misconception of Fact : Poonai Fattemah (1869) 12 W.R. Cr. 7
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs

Explanation: R v. Kopsch rejected “uncontrollable/irresistible impulse” as a defence; DPP v. Beard is the leading authority on the defence of drunkenness/intoxication; and Poonai Fattemah is the classic Indian case on consent given under a misconception of fact (Section 90 IPC / snake-charmer facts). All three are correctly matched.

Q2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In case of a person abetting an offence by intentionally aiding another to commit that offence, the charge of abetment against him would fail when the person alleged to have committed the offence is acquitted of that offence.
Statement II: To constitute the offence of abetment, it is necessary that the effect to constitute the offence should be caused.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Explanation: Abetment is a distinct, substantive offence. By Explanation 2 to Section 108 IPC (now Section 45, BNS), it is not necessary that the act abetted be committed or any effect be caused, and an abettor may be convicted even where the principal offender is acquitted. Both statements state the law incorrectly.

Q3. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Under Section 248 of BNS 2023 institution of a criminal proceeding must be for an offence or the false charge must be of an offence.
Statement II: Under Section 248 of BNS, 2023, offence is not triable by a magistrate below the rank of a First Class Magistrate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: Section 248 BNS (false charge of offence made with intent to injure — the IPC 211 successor) requires that the false charge relate to an “offence.” Its ordinary form is triable by a Magistrate of the First Class (the aggravated form by a Court of Session), i.e. not by a magistrate below First Class rank. Both statements are correct.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. Affray may be committed in a public place and cannot be committed in a private place.
2. Affray is ordinarily punishable with imprisonment of either description for three months or fine upto ₹1,000 or both.
3. Affray may be sudden and unpremeditated.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: Affray (Section 194 BNS / Sections 159–160 IPC) must be committed in a public place (statement 1 correct) and is typically sudden and unpremeditated (statement 3 correct). But the punishment is imprisonment up to one month or fine up to ₹1,000 or both — not “three months.” Statement 2 is therefore wrong.

Q5. Consider the following pairs:

1. Ross v. Parkyns (1875) : Existence of Partnership
2. Smith v. Bailey (1891) : Applicability of Holding out Principle
3. Moss v. Elphick (1910) : Partnership at will
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs (verify with official key)

Explanation: Ross v. Parkyns concerns whether sharing of profits creates a partnership (existence of partnership) and Moss v. Elphick is the leading authority on partnership at will — both correctly matched. The link of Smith v. Bailey to “holding out” is doubtful, so two pairs are safely correct.

Q6. Consider the following statements relating to Indian Partnership Act, 1932:

1. Under Section 30, a minor admitted to benefit can sue the firm but can not be sued for firm debt personally.
2. Goodwill is partnership property only if it is acquired for consideration or created by the firm effort.
3. If a partner carries any business of the same nature as and competing with that of the firm, he may not account for and pay to the firm any profit made by him in that business.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: A minor admitted to the benefits of partnership (Section 30) is not personally liable for firm debts (statement 1 correct); goodwill is firm property under Section 14 (statement 2 correct). But Section 16(b) requires a partner carrying on a competing business to account for and pay all such profits to the firm — statement 3 states the opposite and is wrong.

Q7. Consider the following pairs:

1. Scarf v. Jordan (1882) : Election of liability between old and new firm
2. Chandrakant Manilal Shah v. CIT JT (1991) 4 : Partnership continuing after fixed term became partnership at will
3. CIT v. Dwarkadas Khetan 1961 SC 680 : Minor can not be full partner in firm
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation: Scarf v. Jordan deals with election of liability between the old and new firm (correct) and CIT v. Dwarkadas Khetan holds that a minor cannot be a full partner (correct). Chandrakant Manilal Shah v. CIT concerns a valid partnership where a coparcener contributes skill/labour — not “continuation after fixed term,” so pair 2 is wrong.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. A person may become a partner with another person in particular undertakings.
2. Every partner shall indemnify the firm for any loss caused to it by his fraudulence in the conduct of business of the firm.
3. The estate of a deceased partner is not liable to third parties for what may be done after his death by the surviving partner.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (C) All three statements

Explanation: Statement 1 restates Section 8 (particular partnership); statement 2 restates Section 10 (indemnity for fraud); and statement 3 restates Section 35 (estate of deceased partner not liable for post-death acts). All three are correct.

Q9. Consider the following pairs:

1. Suit for price : Available only when property in the goods has passed and buyer refuses to pay
2. Quality of goods : Includes their standard and condition
3. Fault : Means wrongful act or default
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation: Suit for price (Section 55) and definition of “fault” (Section 2(5), “wrongful act or default”) are correct. However, Section 2(12) defines “quality of goods” as including their state or condition — not “standard and condition” — so pair 2 is technically incorrect.

Q10. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sale by mercantile agent in possession with consent of owner passes good title even if the agent exceeds authority.
Statement II: A joint owner in sole possession by permission of co-owners can not pass the good title to the entire goods.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: Under the proviso to Section 27, a sale by a mercantile agent in possession with the owner’s consent passes good title to a bona fide buyer even if the agent exceeds authority (Statement I correct). Section 28 provides that a joint owner in sole possession with the consent of co-owners can pass good title to a good-faith buyer — so Statement II is false.

Q11. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal is held within six months of the occurrence of the vacancy.
Statement II: The person elected to fill the vacancy of the office of the Vice-President holds the office for the remainder of the term of his predecessor.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Explanation: The six-month rule applies to the President (Article 62), not the Vice-President — a casual vacancy in the office of Vice-President is filled “as soon as possible” (Article 68). Further, the newly elected Vice-President serves a full five-year term, not the remainder of the predecessor’s term. Both statements are false.

Q12. Consider the following statements with regard to the Attorney-General of India:

1. To be appointed Attorney-General, one should have worked as a judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least ten years.
2. He holds his office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. In the performance of his duties he has the right of audience in the Supreme Court but not the High Courts.
4. It is his duty to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters as are referred to him.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) Only three statements   (D) All four statements

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: Under Article 76, the AG must be qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court (not “ten years as a High Court judge”) — statement 1 wrong. He holds office during the President’s pleasure (2 correct) and advises Government on referred legal matters (4 correct). He has a right of audience in all courts including the High Courts, so statement 3 is wrong. Two statements are correct.

Q13. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Chief Election Commissioner of India cannot be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of a High Court.
Statement II: An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Under Article 324(5), the CEC can be removed only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court (not High Court) — Statement I is false. Other Election Commissioners cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the CEC — Statement II is true.

Q14. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If the Council of States passes a resolution by a simple majority that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the state list, the Parliament can make laws with respect to that matter.
Statement II: A resolution for removal of the Vice President of India can be initiated in the Council of States alone.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Article 249 requires a resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting — not a simple majority — so Statement I is false. Under Article 67(b), a resolution to remove the Vice-President can be moved only in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) — Statement II is true.

Q15. Consider the following statements: A member of Parliament may be disqualified from being a member of the House:

1. If he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party.
3. If any independently elected member joins any political party.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one   (B) Only two   (C) All three   (D) None

✅ Answer: (C) All three

Explanation: All three are grounds of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law): voluntarily giving up party membership, voting/abstaining against the party whip (unless condoned within 15 days), and an independent member joining a political party.

Q16. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
2. The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger of it.
3. The President cannot issue a proclamation of national emergency unless the decision of the Union Cabinet regarding the issuance of the same has been communicated to him in writing.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one   (B) Only two   (C) All three   (D) None

✅ Answer: (C) All three

Explanation: All three restate Article 352 correctly — grounds (war, external aggression, armed rebellion); the Explanation permitting a proclamation on imminent danger before actual occurrence; and Article 352(3) requiring the Union Cabinet’s written recommendation before the President proclaims emergency.

Q17. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: It is the duty of the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Statement II: The receipt of a report from the Governor is a necessary condition for the President of India to declare President’s Rule in a state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: Article 355 casts a duty on the Union to ensure every State’s government runs per the Constitution (Statement I true). Under Article 356, the President may act on the Governor’s report “or otherwise” — the Governor’s report is not a necessary condition, so Statement II is false.

Q18. Consider the following statements:

1. A person cannot be appointed Governor more than once.
2. The Governor possesses diplomatic powers but lesser in comparison to the President.
3. The grounds on which a Governor may be dismissed are not laid down in the Constitution.
4. If the term of a Governor expires, he continues to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) Only three statements   (D) All four statements

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: A person can be appointed Governor more than once and even for two States (statement 1 wrong); the Governor has no diplomatic powers (statement 2 wrong). The Constitution does not lay down grounds for a Governor’s removal — he holds office during the President’s pleasure (3 correct) — and under the proviso to Article 156(3) he continues till his successor enters office (4 correct).

Q19. Consider the following pairs:

1. Development of scientific temper : Directive Principle of State Policy
2. Rendering of National Service : Fundamental Duty
3. Free movement throughout the territory of India : Fundamental Right
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the Pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation: Development of scientific temper is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(h), not a Directive Principle — so pair 1 is wrong. Rendering national service is a Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(d)) and free movement throughout India is a Fundamental Right (Article 19(1)(d)) — pairs 2 and 3 are correct.

Q20. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Shri Bhagwat Dayal Sharma was the first Chief Minister of Haryana.
Statement II: He remained Chief Minister of Haryana from 1-11-1966 to 23-3-1971.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Explanation: Bhagwat Dayal Sharma was indeed Haryana’s first Chief Minister (Statement I true). But his tenure ran from 1 November 1966 to 23 March 1967 (after which Rao Birender Singh took over) — not up to 1971 — so Statement II is false.

Q21. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The territorial designation Hariala mentioned in Skandapurana stands for Haryana.
Statement II: Delhi Museum Inscription of the reign of Muhammad Tughlaq (A.D. 1328) mentions the name Hariyana.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: Both are accepted points in Haryana history — the Skandapurana refers to the region as “Hariala,” and the Delhi Museum inscription of Muhammad Tughlaq (1328 AD) records the name “Hariyana.”

Q22. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Punjab Reorganization Bill was passed by the Parliament of 10th September, 1966.
Statement II: As a result of this Bill Haryana came into being as nineteenth State of India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Explanation: The Punjab Reorganisation Bill was passed in September 1966 (assent 18 September 1966), and Haryana was formed on 1 November 1966 — but as the 17th State of India, not the 19th. Statement II is therefore false.

Q23.

How many different 6-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘TRADER’ so that each word has to start with T and end with R?

(A) 9   (B) 44   (C) 24   (D) 5

✅ Answer: (C) 24

Explanation: TRADER = T, R, A, D, E, R (R repeats). Fixing T first and one R last, the four middle places are filled by the remaining distinct letters R, A, D, E in 4! = 24 ways.

Q24.

The average score of a batsman after his 60th innings was 56.4. After 90th innings, his average score increases by 9.6. What is his average score in the last 30 innings?

(A) 45.9   (B) 76.0   (C) 64.5   (D) 85.2

✅ Answer: (D) 85.2

Explanation: Runs after 60 innings = 60 × 56.4 = 3384. After 90 innings the average is 56.4 + 9.6 = 66.0, so total = 90 × 66 = 5940. Last-30 total = 5940 − 3384 = 2556; average = 2556 ÷ 30 = 85.2.

Q25.

How many different 8-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘LATHWORK’ so that each word has to start with K and end with H?

(A) 723   (B) 735   (C) 714   (D) 720

✅ Answer: (D) 720

Explanation: LATHWORK has 8 distinct letters. Fixing K first and H last, the six middle places are filled by the remaining 6 distinct letters in 6! = 720 ways.

Q26.

Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If p × q = 4032, then what is the sum of p and q?

(A) 109   (B) 115   (C) 132   (D) 161

✅ Answer: (C) 132

Explanation: 4032 = 48 × 84, and 84 is 48 reversed. So p and q are 48 and 84, and their sum is 132.

Q27.

The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to 26 respectively. If BI = 58 and DE = 90, then what is AH equal to?

(A) 36   (B) 69   (C) 70   (D) 78

✅ Answer: (A) 36

Explanation: Concatenate the letter positions and multiply by 2. B(2)I(9) → 29 × 2 = 58; D(4)E(5) → 45 × 2 = 90. So A(1)H(8) → 18 × 2 = 36.

Q28. Consider the following statements about Haryana’s budget 2026-27:

1. The fiscal deficit has been projected at 2.66 percent in revised estimates 2025-26 and 2.65 percent in the Budget Estimates 2026-27.
2. In Budget estimates 2026-27, the revenue deficit has been projected at 0.87 percent as against 1.33 percent of GSDP in revised estimates 2025-26.
3. The Government’s revenue receipts are anticipated to increase by 14.63 percent in budget estimates 2026-27.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (C) All three statements (verify with official key)

Explanation: The Haryana Budget 2026-27 documents put the revenue deficit at about 0.87% (BE 2026-27) versus 1.33% (RE 2025-26), the fiscal deficit at roughly 2.65–2.66%, and project a rise in revenue receipts of about 14.63%. On these figures all three statements match the budget.

Q29. Consider the following persons:

1. Dr. Anukampa Garg
2. Smt. Sunita Chauhan
3. Smt. Bharti Saini
4. Smt. Deepika Khanna
Which of the above persons have been recently nominated as members of the Haryana State Commission for Women?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only   (B) 2, 3 and 4 only   (C) 1, 3 and 4 only   (D) All of the above

✅ Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only (verify with official key)

Explanation: Dr. Anukampa Garg, Smt. Sunita Chauhan and Smt. Bharti Saini feature among the members nominated to the Haryana State Commission for Women; Deepika Khanna is not among the reported nominees.

Q30. Consider the following Districts of Haryana:

1. Mahendragarh
2. Faridabad
3. Sirsa
4. Hisar
Which of the above were districts, when Haryana came into being on November 1, 1966?

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 2 and 3 only   (C) 3 and 4 only   (D) 1 and 4 only

✅ Answer: (D) 1 and 4 only

Explanation: Haryana’s seven original districts (1 Nov 1966) were Rohtak, Jind, Hisar, Mahendragarh, Gurgaon, Karnal and Ambala. Of the options, only Mahendragarh and Hisar existed then; Sirsa (1975) and Faridabad (1979) were carved out later.

Q31. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Sunni Law, residuary heir (Asaba) can inherit even in the presence of all Quaranic sharers, provided the estate remains after distribution of fixed shares.
2. In Shia Law, the doctrine of Aul (proportionate reduction of shares) is applied in the same manner as in Sunni Law when the sum total of shares exceeds unity.
3. A murderer of the deceased is absolutely disqualified from inheritance under all Schools of Muslim Law irrespective of whether the act was intentional or accidental.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one   (B) Only two   (C) All three   (D) None

✅ Answer: (A) Only one

Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct — residuaries (Asaba) take whatever remains after the Quranic sharers. The doctrine of Aul is a Sunni device and is not applied in Shia law in the same manner (statement 2 wrong). Under Shia law only intentional homicide disqualifies an heir (statement 3 wrong).

Q32. Consider the following pairs of Chief Ministers and the number of Terms:

1. Shri Bhagwat Dayal Sharma : 02 times as Chief Minister
2. Shri Bansi Lal : 04 times as Chief Minister
3. Shri Banarsi Das Gupta : 01 time as Chief Minister
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs (verify with official key)

Explanation: Bansi Lal is counted as a four-time CM (correct) and Bhagwat Dayal Sharma is generally listed with two stints in 1966–67 (correct). Banarsi Das Gupta, however, served as CM twice (1975–77 and 1990), so “01 time” is wrong. Hence two pairs match.

Q33. Consider the following pairs of Assembly Constituency and their Districts:

1. Mulana : Ambala
2. Indri : Kurukshetra
3. Uklana : Jind
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (A) Only one pair

Explanation: Only Mulana (Ambala district) is correctly matched. Indri lies in Karnal district (not Kurukshetra) and Uklana lies in Hisar district (not Jind).

Q34. Consider the following pairs of Administrative Division and the District:

1. Gurgaon : Rewari
2. Rohtak : Jind
3. Hisar : Bhiwani
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (A) Only one pair (verify with official key)

Explanation: Rewari falls under the Gurugram division (pair 1 correct). Jind is placed under the Hisar division (not Rohtak) and Bhiwani under the Rohtak division (not Hisar) as per the current re-organised divisions — so pairs 2 and 3 are wrong. (Divisions have been re-organised over time; verify against the notification current on the exam date.)

Q35. Consider the following pairs about component of expenditures in Haryana’s budget 2026-27:

1. Economic Service : 21.01%
2. Social : 34.31%
3. Repayment of Debts : 29.23%
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs (verify with official key)

Explanation: These figures reflect the expenditure composition given in the Haryana Budget 2026-27 documents (Economic Service ~21.01%, Social ~34.31%, Repayment of Debts ~29.23%). As the numbers are lifted from the budget, all three are treated as correctly matched; confirm against the official answer key.

Q36. Consider the following pairs:

1. Central Soil and Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI) : Karnal
2. National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA) : Panchkula
3. National Brain Research Centre (NBRC) : Faridabad
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (A) Only one pair

Explanation: Only CSSRI–Karnal is correct. The National Institute of Ayurveda is at Jaipur (not Panchkula) and the National Brain Research Centre is at Manesar, Gurugram (not Faridabad).

Q37. Consider the following pairs:

1. Mela Baba Bhuman Shah : Sirsa
2. Mela Bhimeshwari Devi : Beri
3. Mela Kapal Mochan : Panchkula
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation: Mela Baba Bhuman Shah (Dabwali, Sirsa) and Mela Bhimeshwari Devi (Beri, Jhajjar) are correctly matched. Mela Kapal Mochan is held at Bilaspur in Yamunanagar district — not Panchkula — so pair 3 is wrong.

Q38. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Under the doctrine of res gestae, every statement made after the commission of an offence is automatically admissible if it relates to the same subject matter need not be contemporaneous or so immediately connected.
Statement II: Facts forming parts of the same transaction may be relevant even though they occurred at different times and places, provided continuity of action and purpose is established.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Res gestae (Section 6 Evidence Act / Section 4 BSA) requires the statement to be contemporaneous or so connected as to form part of the same transaction — statements are not “automatically” admissible, so Statement I is false. Facts forming part of the same transaction may indeed be relevant though at different times/places if continuity is shown (Statement II true).

Q39. Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, facts in issue and relevant facts alone are admissible, unless expressly excluded by law.
2. Any fact that appears morally persuasive to the court is admissible even if it is neither a fact in issue nor a relevant fact.
3. A confession caused by inducement, threat, or promise from a person in authority is irrelevant if it appears sufficient to give the accused grounds to suppose an advantage or avoid evil.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: Evidence may be given only of facts in issue and relevant facts (statement 1 correct), and a confession obtained by inducement/threat/promise from a person in authority is irrelevant (statement 3 correct). A “morally persuasive” fact that is neither in issue nor relevant is not admissible — statement 2 is wrong.

Q40.

In the expression 99 − 26 − 5H − 8H − 2H − 2H − 81 = −190 for which digit does the symbol H stand?

(A) 5   (B) 3   (C) 7   (D) 0

✅ Answer: (B) 3

Explanation: Treating 5H, 8H, 2H, 2H as two-digit numbers (50+H, 80+H, 20+H, 20+H): 99 − 26 − (50+H) − (80+H) − (20+H) − (20+H) − 81 = −178 − 4H. Setting this = −190 gives 4H = 12, so H = 3.

Q41.

A bike travels from place X to place Y at an average speed of 1/4v km/hr, from place Y to place X at an average speed of 4v km/hr, from place X to place Y at an average speed of 2v km/hr, from place Y to place X at an average speed of 3v km/hr. Then the average speed of the bike for the entire journey −

(A) is less than v km/hr   (B) lies between v and 2v km/hr   (C) lies between 2v and 3v km/hr   (D) lies between 3v and 4v km/hr

✅ Answer: (A) is less than v km/hr

Explanation: For four equal-distance legs, average speed = 4 ÷ (4/v + 1/4v + 1/2v + 1/3v) = 48v/61 ≈ 0.79v, which is less than v km/hr. (The very slow first leg at v/4 drags the harmonic mean down.)

Q42.

A woman takes 5/8 time in rowing a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is the ratio of the speed in still water to the speed of current?

(A) 16/3   (B) 13/3   (C) 3/13   (D) 16/13

✅ Answer: (B) 13/3

Explanation: Time ratio (down:up) = speed ratio (up:down) = (x−y)/(x+y) = 5/8. So 8(x−y) = 5(x+y) ⇒ 3x = 13y ⇒ x/y = 13/3 (still-water speed : current).

Q43.

Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 2, 3, 6, 8, 12, 16, 24, 32, 48, 64, 96 where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern. Find out the correct term.

(A) 2   (B) 4   (C) 12   (D) 16

✅ Answer: (B) 4

Explanation: Odd-position terms (2, 6, 12, 24, 48, 96) and even-position terms should each double: 2, 6, 12, 24, 48, 96 and 4, 8, 16, 32, 64. The 2nd term is printed as 3 but should be 4.

Q44.

3 friends visit the church on every 2nd, 28th and 10th day respectively. If all of them met at the church on a Tuesday, then on which day will all of them meet again?

(A) Monday   (B) Tuesday   (C) Wednesday   (D) Saturday

✅ Answer: (B) Tuesday

Explanation: LCM of 2, 28 and 10 is 140. Since 140 ÷ 7 = 20 (a whole number of weeks), they meet again on the same weekday — Tuesday.

Q45. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bhartiya Janta Party is the largest party in both houses of current parliament.
Statement II: Indian National Congress is not the second largest party in both houses of current parliament.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Explanation: The BJP is the single largest party in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha (Statement I true). The Indian National Congress is the second-largest party in both Houses, so the claim that it “is not” the second largest is false (Statement II false).

Q46. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: “Aapki Beti Hamari Beti” scheme aims at improving the child sex ratio in Haryana.
Statement II: The scheme guidelines came into force from 22nd January, 2015.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (verify with official key)

Explanation: “Aapki Beti Hamari Beti” is a Haryana scheme aimed at improving the child sex ratio and empowering the girl child (Statement I true); the scheme was rolled out in early 2015 with guidelines effective from 22 January 2015 (Statement II accepted as true).

Q47. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The ancient site Rakhigarhi lies in the revenue jurisdiction of villages Rakhi Shahpur and Rakhi Khas.
Statement II: Rakhigarhi is a famous Vedic site in north India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Explanation: Rakhigarhi (Hisar district) spreads over the villages Rakhi Shahpur and Rakhi Khas (Statement I true). But it is a famous Harappan / Indus Valley Civilisation site — not a Vedic site — so Statement II is false.

Q48. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: It is customary in Haryana that after Ghurchari the boy does not return his home without bride.
Statement II: When the Bhat is given, the boy’s or the girl’s father performs the ceremony of Aarta or Minna.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Explanation: The Ghurchari custom (statement I) is correctly described. In the Bhat ceremony the Aarta/Minna is performed by the mother (not the father) of the boy or girl, so Statement II is false.

Q49. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Teej or Hariyali Teej is a seasonal festival which is celebrated in the month of Sawan.
Statement II: Makar Sankranti is celebrated in the month of Kartika.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

Explanation: Hariyali Teej falls in the month of Sawan (Statement I true). Makar Sankranti is celebrated in the month of Magha (mid-January) — not Kartika — so Statement II is false.

Q50. Consider the following statements about Harihar Policy/Initiative of Haryana Govt.:

1. This policy substituted the earlier “Jyotigamaya” Policy notified in 2013.
2. This policy provides free school and higher education including technical education, skill development and industrial training and after care rehabilitation and financial assistance.
3. This policy provides jobs on compassionate ground and economically weaker section (EWS) status to the children covered in the policy guidelines.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (C) All three statements (verify with official key)

Explanation: The HARIHAR (Homeless, Abandoned and Surrendered Children Rehabilitation) policy replaced the earlier Jyotigamaya policy and provides free education (including technical/skill training), after-care rehabilitation, financial assistance and EWS-status/other support for orphan and abandoned children. If “jobs on compassionate ground” is read strictly, statement 3 could be excluded (making the answer B) — confirm with the official key.

Q51. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a sale of specific or ascertained goods, the property in them is transferred to the buyer at such time as the parties to the contract intend it to be transferred.
Statement II: For the purpose of ascertaining the intention of the parties regard shall be had to the terms of the contract not the conduct of the parties.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: Section 19(1) of the Sale of Goods Act says property passes when the parties intend (Statement I true). Section 19(2) says regard shall be had to the terms of the contract, the conduct of the parties and the circumstances — so excluding conduct makes Statement II false.

Q52. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Right of lien is lost when the unpaid seller delivers the goods to a carrier without reserving the right of disposal of the goods.
Statement II: The seller shall not exercise his right of lien if he is in possession of the goods as agent or bailee for the buyer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: Under Section 49(1)(a) the unpaid seller loses his lien on delivering goods to a carrier without reserving the right of disposal (Statement I true). But under Section 47(2) the seller may exercise his lien even while holding the goods as agent or bailee for the buyer — so Statement II is false.

Q53. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Muslim Law does not recognize a joint family but recognize the distinction between movable and immovable property in Muslim Law of Inheritance.
Statement II: According to Sunni Law the expectant right of an heir-apparent can not pass by succession to his heir, nor can it pass by bequest to a legatee under his will.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Muslim law of inheritance makes no distinction between movable and immovable property, so Statement I (which asserts such a distinction) is false. The expectant right of an heir-apparent (spes successionis) is a mere chance, and cannot pass by succession or bequest — Statement II is true.

Q54. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A gift of immovable property of which the donor is in actual possession is not complete, unless the donor physically departs from the premises with all his goods and chattels and the donee physically enters into possession.
Statement II: No physical departure or formal entry is necessary in the case of a gift of immovable property in which the donor and the donee are both residing at the time of the gift.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: Both statements correctly state the Muslim law of gift (hiba): delivery of possession is essential, so where the donor is in actual possession he must depart and the donee enter; but where donor and donee both reside in the property, no formal physical departure/entry is required (constructive possession suffices).

Q55.

In which of the following fractions 3/4, 1/3, 7/9, 1/4 will have the minimum change in its value if 4 is added to both numerator and denominator?

(A) 3/4   (B) 1/3   (C) 7/9   (D) 1/4

✅ Answer: (C) 7/9

Explanation: Adding 4 to both terms pushes a fraction towards 1, so the fraction already closest to 1 changes least. 7/9 (≈0.778 → 11/13 ≈0.846) changes by only ≈0.068, the smallest change among the four.

Q56.

A person bought a car and sold it for ₹1,42,500. If he incurred a loss of 5%, then how much did he spend to buy the car?

(A) ₹1,50,000   (B) ₹2,50,000   (C) ₹1,00,000   (D) ₹50,000

✅ Answer: (A) ₹1,50,000

Explanation: Selling price = 95% of cost. Cost = 1,42,500 ÷ 0.95 = ₹1,50,000.

Q57.

In the series abba_a_ba__b_a_abbab; fill in the six blanks (_) using one of the following four choices such that the series follows a specific order.

(A) bbbabb   (B) aabaaa   (C) babaaa   (D) aabbaa

✅ Answer: (A) bbbabb

Explanation: The string is the block “abbab” repeated four times (abbab/abbab/abbab/abbab). Filling the blanks to complete that pattern gives b b b a b b.

Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the meetings of a House in the Parliament:

1. Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
2. If at any time during a meeting of a House there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the Chairman or Speaker either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.
3. The proceedings in the Parliament shall be declared invalid if it is discovered that some person who was not entitled to vote, voted in the proceedings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one   (B) Only two   (C) All three   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two

Explanation: Article 100(3) fixes the quorum at one-tenth (statement 1 correct) and Article 100(4) casts the duty to adjourn/suspend on the Chair when there is no quorum (statement 2 correct). Proceedings are not invalidated merely because an unentitled person voted (Article 122) — statement 3 is wrong.

Q59. Consider the following pairs:

1. Robinson v. Graves (1861) : Contract of work and labour
2. M. Ghosh v. State of Bihar (1961) : Taking photograph is not contract of work and labour
3. Consolidated Coffee Ltd. v. Coffee Board (1980) : Auction-Sale
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs (verify with official key)

Explanation: Robinson v. Graves (contract for work and labour — portrait painting) and Consolidated Coffee Ltd. v. Coffee Board (auction-sale / meaning of “sale”) are correctly matched. The description attached to M. Ghosh v. State of Bihar is doubtful, so two pairs are safely correct.

Q60. Consider the following statements:

1. There may be a contract of sale between one part-owner and another.
2. In case of sale of specified article under it’s patent name there is no implied condition as to its fitness for any particular purpose.
3. Unless otherwise agreed, the expenses of and incidental to putting the goods into deliverable state shall be borne by the buyer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: Section 4(1) permits a contract of sale between part-owners (statement 1 correct) and the proviso to Section 16(1) excludes an implied condition of fitness on a sale under a patent/trade name (statement 2 correct). Under Section 36(5) the expenses of putting goods into a deliverable state are borne by the seller, not the buyer — statement 3 is wrong.

Q61. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, contains a list of 16 persons of the class I heirs. Three females were added to the class I heirs by the amendment. Now, Class I contains a list of 16 persons who are the primary heirs and they inherit because of their relationship to the propositus.
Statement II: Out of them, the son, the daughter, the widow and the mother are the only four primary heirs and they inherit because of their relationship to the propositus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: After the 2005 amendment, Class I has 16 heirs (four new heirs added, of whom three are female) — Statement I is correct. Among Class I heirs, the son, daughter, widow and mother are the four “primary” heirs who inherit in their own right, the rest inheriting by representation — Statement II is correct.

Q62. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a Mitakshara Coparcenary, the shares of coparceners are not fixed but this fluctuating interest of the deceased coparcener is fixed by the explanation for purposes of it’s devolution.
Statement II: Explanation I to Section 6(3) of the Hindu Succession Act 1956 lays down that for the purposes of this section the interest of a Hindu Mitakshara coparcener shall be the share which he would have got, had there been a partition immediately before his death irrespective of the fact whether he was entitled to claim partition or not.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: A coparcener’s interest fluctuates with births and deaths; on death it is fixed by a notional partition for devolution (Statement I true). The Explanation to Section 6 fixes that interest as the share he would have received on a partition immediately before death, whether or not he could claim partition (Statement II true).

Q63. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: ‘Community Service’ as a form of punishment is defined under Section 53 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
Statement II: ‘Community Service’ as a form of punishment is defined under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: In the BNS, community service is listed as a punishment under Section 4 (not “defined at Section 53”), so Statement I is false. It is defined in the Explanation to Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023 — Statement II is true.

Q64. Consider the following statements:

1. Offence relating to printing or publishing any matter relating to Court proceedings without permission is given under Chapter “Of Offences relating to Documents and to Property Marks”.
2. The offences of Kidnapping, abduction or inducing woman to compel her marriage, etc. is given under Chapter “Of Offences affecting the Human Body”.
3. The offence of importation of girl or boy from foreign country is given under Chapter “Of Offences against Woman and Child.”
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (A) Only one statement

Explanation: Importation of a girl or boy from a foreign country (Section 141 BNS) falls under the chapter “Of Offences Against Woman and Child” (statement 3 correct). Printing/publishing matter relating to court proceedings is also in that same chapter (BNS s.73), not under “Documents and Property Marks” (statement 1 wrong); and inducing a woman to compel her marriage sits under “Offences Against Woman and Child,” not “Human Body,” so statement 2 is wrong.

Q65. Consider the following pairs:

1. Proximity Rule : State of Maharashtra v. Mohammad Yakub (1980)
2. Doctrine of Locus Poenitentiae : Malkiat Singh v. State of Punjab (1970)
3. The Equivocality Test : Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar (1961)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs

Explanation: These are the standard Indian “attempt” authorities: Mohd. Yakub (proximity test), Malkiat Singh (doctrine of locus poenitentiae — accused could still withdraw, so only preparation), and Abhayanand Mishra (attempt / equivocality). All three are correctly matched.

Q66. Consider the following pairs:

1. Sangeet v. State of Haryana (2013) : ‘Balancing Test’ of Death sentence
2. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) : ‘Rarest of rare Test’ of Death sentence
3. Shankar Kisanrao Khade v. State of Maharashtra (2013) : ‘Triple Test’ of Death sentence
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs

Explanation: Bachan Singh laid down the “rarest of rare” doctrine; Shankar Kisanrao Khade introduced the crime test–criminal test–“rarest of rare” (triple) test; and Sangeet v. Haryana is associated with critiquing/refining the aggravating-mitigating balancing exercise. All three are correctly matched.

Q67. Consider the following statements relating to assignment under Indian Contract Act, 1872:

1. In absence of any consideration between assignor and assignee, the assignment will be revocable by the assignor.
2. In absence of notice of assignment, debtor can make payment to the assignor and that will be a good discharge.
3. If the assignor makes more than one assignment of the same claim, the assignee who gives notice of the assignment to him first in point of time, will not have priority over the other, if the assignment to him came later in time.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None of the statements

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: A gratuitous (no-consideration) assignment is revocable (statement 1 correct) and, absent notice, the debtor gets a good discharge by paying the assignor (statement 2 correct). By the rule in Dearle v. Hall, the assignee who first gives notice gains priority even if his assignment was later — so statement 3 states the law backwards and is wrong.

Q68. Consider the following statements under Indian Contract Act, 1872:

1. Fraud is more or less an intentional wrong which by misrepresentation may be quite innocent.
2. Fraud includes the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true.
3. Misrepresentation is also tort but under Section 75 of Indian Contract Act, “a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for damage which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract”.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (A) Only one statement

Explanation: Statement 3 correctly quotes Section 75. Statement 2 actually describes misrepresentation (Section 18) — a false assertion believed to be true — not fraud (Section 17 requires a lack of belief in the truth); and statement 1 is internally contradictory. Only one statement is correct.

Q69. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, the other party thereto need not to perform any promise therein contained in which he is the promisor. The party rescinding a voidable contract shall, if he has received any benefit thereunder from another party to such contract, restore such benefit so far as may be to the person from whom it was received.
Statement II: When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, any person who has received any advantage under such agreement or contract is bound to restore it or to make compensation for it to the person from whom he received it.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: Statement I restates Section 64 (consequences of rescission of a voidable contract) and Statement II restates Section 65 (restoration of benefit when an agreement is discovered void or a contract becomes void). Both are correct.

Q70. Consider the following pairs:

1. Justice Burrough : Richardson v. Mellish (1824) 2 Bing 229, 252
2. Justice Lush : Currie v. Misa (1875) LR 10 Ex 153
3. Chief Justice Shadilal : Khan Gul v. Lakha Singh, AIR 1928 Lah 609
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs

Explanation: Justice Burrough’s “public policy is an unruly horse” is from Richardson v. Mellish; Justice Lush’s classic definition of consideration is from Currie v. Misa; and Khan Gul v. Lakha Singh was decided by Sir Shadi Lal, C.J. All three are correctly matched.

Q71. Consider the following pairs:

1. Continuing guarantee : Section 129, Indian Contract Act, 1872
2. Bailee’s particular Lien : Section 170, Indian Contract Act, 1872
3. Effect of Ratification : Section 198, Indian Contract Act, 1872
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation: Continuing guarantee is Section 129 and the bailee’s particular lien is Section 170 — both correct. The “effect of ratification” is dealt with in Sections 196–197; Section 198 concerns the knowledge requisite for valid ratification, so pair 3 is wrong.

Q72. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A delivers to B, a common carrier, a machine, to be conveyed, without delay to A’s mill, informing B that his mill is stopped for want of machine. B unreasonably delays the delivery of the machine and A in consequence loses a profitable contract with the Government.
Statement II: On the basis of the above statement, A is entitled to receive from B, by way of compensation the extraordinary amount of profit which would have been made by the working of the mill on fulfilling of government contract.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: This is the classic illustration to Section 73 (the Hadley v. Baxendale rule). Because B was not told of the special government contract, A can recover ordinary losses from the mill’s stoppage but not the extraordinary profit of that special contract — Statement II is false.

Q73. Consider the following pairs:

1. Krell v. Henry (1903) : Doctrine of Frustration
2. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. (1954) : Impossibility
3. Taylor v. Caldwell (1863) : Destruction of subject matter of contract
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs

Explanation: Krell v. Henry (coronation case) illustrates frustration of purpose; Satyabrata Ghose is the leading Indian case on impossibility/frustration under Section 56; and Taylor v. Caldwell is the destruction-of-subject-matter case. All three are correctly matched.

Q74. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When a contract has been broken a stipulation for increased interest from the date of default may be a stipulation by way of penalty.
Statement II: A person who enters into a contract with Government does not necessarily thereby undertake any public duty, or promise to do an act in which the public are interested.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default may amount to a penalty under Section 74 (Statement I true). It is also settled that merely contracting with the Government does not, by itself, cast a public duty or a promise to do an act in which the public are interested (Statement II true).

Q75. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Central Government shall prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the State, with a view to ensure protection of the witness.
Statement II: When any person is sentenced to death, the sentence shall direct that he be hanged by the neck till he is dead.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: Under the BNSS (Section 398), it is the State Government that must prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme — so Statement I (“Central Government”) is false. Statement II correctly reproduces the direction that a person sentenced to death be hanged by the neck till he is dead.

Q76. Consider the following statements:

1. The best procedure of arrest is the submission to the custody by words or action.
2. A police officer while making an arrest, shall actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there is a submission to the custody.
3. If the accused person forcibly resist the endeavour to arrest, or attempts to evade the arrest, police officer may cause the death of the accused if he has committed an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (C) All three statements

Explanation: All three correctly state the law on arrest (Section 46 CrPC / Section 43 BNSS): arrest is effected by submission to custody or by touching/confining the body; and the police may cause death of a person resisting arrest only where he is accused of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment.

Q77. Consider the following statements:

1. The Central Government may establish a Directorate of Prosecution in the State consisting of a Director of Prosecution and as many Deputy Directors of Prosecution as it thinks fit.
2. The State Government may establish a District Directorate of Prosecution in every district consisting of as many Deputy Directors and Assistant Directors of Prosecution, as it thinks fit.
3. The Directorate of Prosecution shall be headed by the Director of Prosecution who shall function under the administrative control of the Law Department in the State.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: It is the State Government, not the Central Government, that establishes the Directorate of Prosecution (statement 1 wrong). The State may establish a District Directorate in every district (statement 2 correct), and the Directorate is headed by the Director of Prosecution functioning under the administrative control of the Home/Law Department (statement 3 acceptable). Two statements are correct.

Q78. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Inquiry’ means every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under this Sanhita by Police Officer, Magistrate or Court.
2. ‘Investigation’ includes all the proceedings under this Sanhita for the collection of evidence conducted by a police officer or by any person (other than Magistrate) who is authorized by a Magistrate in this behalf.
3. ‘Judicial Proceeding’ includes any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements

Explanation: ‘Inquiry’ means every inquiry other than a trial conducted by a Magistrate or Court — not by a police officer — so statement 1 is wrong. The definitions of ‘Investigation’ and ‘Judicial Proceeding’ (statements 2 and 3) are correctly stated.

Q79. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Under Procedural Law, justice and fair play require that no one be punished without a fair trial.
Statement II: A person might be under a thick cloud of suspicion of guilt, he might have been even caught red-handed, and yet he is not to be punished unless and until he is tried and adjudged to be guilty by a competent court.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: Both statements express settled principles of criminal justice — the requirement of a fair trial and the presumption of innocence: even a person caught red-handed cannot be punished until tried and adjudged guilty by a competent court.

Q80. Consider the following pairs:

1. Person once convicted or acquitted not to be tried for same offence : Section 300 of the BNSS
2. Golden Rule of charge : Section 241 of the BNSS
3. Trial for more than one offence : Section 243 of the BNSS
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation: The “golden rule” of separate charges for distinct offences (BNSS s.241) and trial for more than one offence (BNSS s.243) are correctly matched. The bar on re-trial after conviction/acquittal (autrefois acquit/convict) is Section 337 BNSS — “Section 300” is its old CrPC number — so pair 1 is wrong.

Q81. Consider the following statements relating to effect of Set-Off:

1. The written statement shall not have same effect as a plaint in a cross suit under Order VIII, rule 6(3).
2. It would enable the Court to pronounce judgement in respect both of the original claim and of Set-Off.
3. It shall effect the lien of any pleader in respect of the costs payable to him under the decree.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (A) Only one statement

Explanation: Under Order VIII Rule 6(2), the written statement claiming set-off shall have the effect of a plaint in a cross-suit and it enables the court to pronounce a final judgment on both claims (statement 2 correct), but this “shall not affect” the pleader’s lien on the decreed amount. So statement 1 (“shall not have same effect”) and statement 3 (“shall affect the lien”) both misstate the provision.

Q82. Consider the following statements relating to Section 35A of CPC, 1908:

1. Compensatory cost can be awarded even at the interlocutory stage.
2. Court of appeal or revisional court is not empowered to award compensatory cost.
3. The compensatory costs awardable are upto ₹50,000.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (D) None (verify with official key)

Explanation: Section 35A caps compensatory costs at ₹3,000 (not ₹50,000) — statement 3 wrong. Such costs are awarded when the false/vexatious claim or defence is disallowed, not routinely at the interlocutory stage (statement 1 wrong), and appellate courts are not precluded from awarding them, so “not empowered” (statement 2) also misstates the position. On the standard reading, none is correct.

Q83. Consider the following pairs:

1. Exclusion of Jurisdiction of Civil Court : Dhulabhai v. State of M.P. (1969)
2. Doctrine of res judicata : Satyadhyan Ghosal v. Deorjin Debi (1960)
3. Principle of Constructive res judicata : Workman v. Board of Trustees, Cochin Port Trust (1978)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs

Explanation: Dhulabhai laid down the tests for exclusion of civil court jurisdiction; Satyadhyan Ghosal is a leading res judicata authority; and Workmen v. Cochin Port Trust deals with constructive res judicata. All three are correctly matched.

Q84. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a legal Set-Off, it is necessary that the cross-demands must arise out of the same transaction. It can be claimed of as right and the court is bound to entertain and adjudicate upon it.
Statement II: In a legal Set-Off, it is necessary that the amount claimed as Set-Off must be legally recoverable and must not be time barred.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation: In a legal set-off the cross-demands need not arise out of the same transaction (that requirement belongs to equitable set-off) — so Statement I is false. It is, however, essential that the amount claimed be an ascertained sum, legally recoverable and not time-barred — Statement II is true.

Q85. Consider the following pairs:

1. Agreement to be filed and registered as suit : Order XXXVI, Rule 3
2. Parties to be subject to Court’s Jurisdiction : Order XXXVI, Rule 4
3. Value of subject matter shall be stated in agreement : Order XXXVI, Rule 2
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs (verify with official key)

Explanation: Under Order XXXVI (special case), Rule 2 requires the agreement to state the value of the subject-matter, Rule 3 requires the agreement to be filed and registered as a suit, and Rule 4 concerns the parties being subject to the court’s jurisdiction — so all three are matched. (Confirm the exact rule numbers against your bare Act.)

Q86. Consider the following pairs:

1. Commission of Scientific Investigation : Order XXVI, Rule 10A
2. Question objected to before the Commissioner : Order XXVI, Rule 10B
3. Commission for performance of a ministerial act : Order XXVI, Rule 10C
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (A) Only one pair

Explanation: Order XXVI Rule 10A (commission for scientific investigation) is correct. But Rule 10B is the commission for the performance of a ministerial act and Rule 10C is the commission for the sale of movable property — so pairs 2 and 3 are mismatched.

Q87. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Where it appears to the Court that there is no sufficient ground for review, it shall reject the application under Order XLVII, Rule 4(2), CPC, 1908.
Statement II: Where the application for review is heard by more than one judge and the Court is equally divided, the application shall be rejected under Order XLVII, Rule 5, CPC, 1908.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (verify with official key)

Explanation: Rejection for want of sufficient ground is under Order XLVII Rule 4(1) — Rule 4(2) deals with granting a review — so the provision cited in Statement I is incorrect. Statement II correctly states that where the bench is equally divided the review application is rejected (Rule 5). (If the exam treats the sub-rule loosely, the intended key may be (A).)

Q88. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When an appeal is heard ex-parte and judgement is pronounced against the respondent, he may apply to the appellate Court to re-hear the appeal by showing sufficient cause under Order XLI, Rule 22, CPC, 1908.
Statement II: Where the evidence upon the record is sufficient, the appellate Court may after resetting the issues, if necessary, finally determine the suit under Order XLI, Rule 23, CPC, 1908.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Explanation: Re-hearing of an appeal decided ex parte is under Order XLI Rule 21 (Rule 22 is cross-objections) — Statement I cites the wrong rule. Final determination of the suit where evidence on record is sufficient is under Rule 24 (Rule 23 is remand) — Statement II also cites the wrong rule. Both are false.

Q89. Consider the following statements:

1. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam does not apply to any proceedings before an arbitrator.
2. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies to affidavits presented to any Court.
3. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies to all Court martial.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (A) Only one statement

Explanation: The Act does not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator (statement 1 correct). It does not apply to affidavits presented to a court (statement 2 wrong), and it does not apply to all courts-martial — those convened under the Army/Navy/Air Force Acts are excluded (statement 3 wrong).

Q90. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Where a video recording is simultaneously stored in electronic form and transmitted or broadcast or transferred to another, each of the stored recording is primary evidence.
Statement II: Where an electronic or digital record is stored in multiple storage spaces in a computer resource, each such automated storage, excluding temporary files is primary evidence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: The Explanations to Section 57 BSA make each simultaneously-stored video recording primary evidence (Statement I true). But where a record is stored in multiple spaces, each automated storage including temporary files is primary evidence — Statement II says “excluding temporary files” and is therefore false.

Q91. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Dying declaration is a statement made by person must relate to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death and not the cause of the death of someone else.
Statement II: Dying declaration is statement about either the death of the person who made the statement or cause of the death of someone else.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: A dying declaration (Section 32(1) Evidence Act / Section 26 BSA) must relate to the cause of the declarant’s own death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in it (Statement I true). It does not extend to the cause of someone else’s death, so Statement II is false.

Q92. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 prescribes, opinion shall not be sufficient to prove marriage in prosecution for marrying again during lifetime of husband and wife.
Statement II: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 prescribes, opinion shall be sufficient to prove marriage in prosecution for enticing or taking away or detaining with criminal intent a married woman.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation: The proviso to the “opinion as to relationship” rule (Section 50 Evidence Act / Section 47 BSA) says such opinion is not sufficient to prove a marriage in prosecutions for bigamy and for offences relating to a married woman. So Statement I is true, and Statement II — asserting opinion “shall be sufficient” — is false.

Q93. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Under Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 a witness may be cross-examined as to previous statement made by him in writing or reduced into writing and relevant to matter in question without such writing being shown to him.
Statement II: A witness may give oral evidence of statement made by other person about the contents of documents, if such statements are in themselves relevant facts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: A witness may be cross-examined on his previous written statements without the writing being shown to him (Section 145 Evidence Act / BSA equivalent) — Statement I true. And a witness may give oral evidence of another person’s statements about the contents of documents where those statements are themselves relevant facts — Statement II true.

Q94. Consider the following pairs:

1. Burden of proving that case of accused within general exceptions in Bharatiya Nyaya Samhita, 2023 : The Court may presume the absence of circumstances bringing the case within general exception
2. The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on : Always on prosecution
3. The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man within 100 days after its dissolution the mother remaining unmarried : Shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate child of that man unless parties had no access to each other
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (A) Only one pair (verify with official key)

Explanation: Pair 1 broadly captures the correct rule — the burden of proving a general exception is on the accused and the court presumes the absence of such circumstances (Section 105 Evidence Act). Pair 2 is wrong — burden of proof lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given, not “always on prosecution.” Pair 3 is wrong — legitimacy is conclusively presumed for a birth within 280 days of dissolution (not 100 days). (If the “may/shall” wording in pair 1 is read strictly, the intended key may be (D) None.)

Q95. Consider the following statements:

1. The High Court may appoint Additional Session Judge to exercise Jurisdiction in a Court of Session.
2. The High Court may appoint Assistant Session Judge to exercise Jurisdiction in a Court of Session.
3. The Session Judge of one Session division may be appointed by the High Court to be also an Additional Session Judge of another Session division.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (B) Only two statements (verify with official key)

Explanation: Under Section 8 BNSS the High Court may appoint Additional Sessions Judges (statement 1 correct) and a Sessions Judge of one division may be appointed an Additional Sessions Judge of another (statement 3 correct). The BNSS does not provide for “Assistant Sessions Judges” (a category retained under the old CrPC), so statement 2 is treated as wrong. (If the question is read under the CrPC, all three would be correct — hence verify.)

Q96. Consider the following pairs:

1. Petty Organised Crime : Cognizable and Non-bailable
2. Voluntarily causing hurt : Cognizable and bailable
3. Snatching : Non-cognizable and bailable
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (A) Only one pair

Explanation: Petty organised crime (BNS s.112) is cognizable and non-bailable (pair 1 correct). Voluntarily causing hurt (BNS s.115) is non-cognizable and bailable (pair 2 wrong), and snatching (BNS s.304) is cognizable (pair 3 wrong).

Q97. Consider the following statements:

1. The Court which passed a decree has power to execute such decree against any person or property outside the local limits of its jurisdiction under Section 39(4), CPC, 1908.
2. The Court which passed a decree may of its own motion send it to execution to any Subordinate Court of competent jurisdiction under Section 39(3), CPC, 1908.
3. The Court which passed a decree may, on the application of the decree holder, send it for execution to another Court of competent jurisdiction under Section 39(1), CPC, 1908.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement   (B) Only two statements   (C) All three statements   (D) None

✅ Answer: (A) Only one statement

Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct (Section 39(1) — transfer for execution on the decree-holder’s application). Section 39(4) actually says the court has no power to execute against person/property outside its local limits (statement 1 reverses it), and the court’s suo motu transfer to a subordinate court is under Section 39(2), not 39(3) (statement 2 cites the wrong sub-section).

Q98. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Temporary injunction is regulated by Order XXXIX, Rule 1 and 2 of CPC and it may be granted at any stage of a suit, but the plaintiff must show a fair prima facie case in support of his right.
Statement II: Perpetual injunction is an order governed by Specific Relief Act and it is granted at the final hearing of the suit and it finally determines the rights of the parties. It is granted after consideration of the merit of the case.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true   (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false   (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false   (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

✅ Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation: Temporary injunctions are governed by Order XXXIX Rules 1–2 CPC, may be granted at any stage, and require a prima facie case (Statement I true). Perpetual injunctions are granted under the Specific Relief Act at the final hearing, on the merits, and finally determine the parties’ rights (Statement II true).

Q99. Consider the following pairs:

1. Darya v. State of UP, AIR 1961 SC 1457 : Doctrine of res judicata
2. State of UP v. Nawab Husain, (1997) 2 SCC 806 : Constructive res judicata
3. Workman v. Board of Trustee, Cochin Port Trust (1978) 3 SCC 119 : Constructive res judicata
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (C) All three pairs

Explanation: Daryao v. State of UP applied res judicata to writ petitions; State of UP v. Nawab Hussain and Workmen v. Cochin Port Trust are leading authorities on constructive res judicata. All three subjects are correctly matched (the year of Nawab Hussain is 1977, a minor citation slip).

Q100. Consider the following pairs:

1. “nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa” : An act of the Court shall prejudice no one
2. “interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium” : No man should be vexed twice for the same cause
3. “actus curiae neminem gravabit” : Judicial decision must be accepted as correct
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair   (B) Only two pairs   (C) All three pairs   (D) None of the pairs

✅ Answer: (D) None of the pairs

Explanation: The correct meanings are: nemo debet bis vexari… = no one should be vexed twice for the same cause; interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium = it is in the interest of the State that there be an end to litigation; actus curiae neminem gravabit = an act of the court shall prejudice no one. As printed, every maxim is matched to the wrong meaning, so none of the pairs is correctly matched.

Quick Answer Key (Q1–Q100)

1-C   2-B   3-A   4-B   5-B   6-B   7-B   8-C   9-B   10-C   11-B   12-B   13-D   14-D   15-C   16-C   17-C   18-B   19-B   20-C   21-A   22-C   23-C   24-D   25-D   26-C   27-A   28-C   29-A   30-D   31-A   32-B   33-A   34-A   35-C   36-A   37-B   38-D   39-B   40-B   41-A   42-B   43-B   44-B   45-C   46-A   47-C   48-C   49-C   50-C   51-C   52-C   53-D   54-A   55-C   56-A   57-A   58-B   59-B   60-B   61-A   62-A   63-D   64-A   65-C   66-C   67-B   68-A   69-A   70-C   71-B   72-C   73-C   74-A   75-D   76-C   77-B   78-B   79-A   80-B   81-A   82-D   83-C   84-D   85-C   86-A   87-D   88-B   89-A   90-C   91-C   92-C   93-A   94-A   95-B   96-A   97-A   98-A   99-C   100-D

Disclaimer: This answer key is prepared for study purposes from the statutory provisions and leading case law. Answers to a few Haryana current-affairs and obscure case-law items (marked “verify with official key”) may differ from the Commission’s official key; always cross-check with the official HPSC answer key before relying on them.

About the Author

Akinchan Aggarwal

Advocate, Punjab & Haryana High Court  |  B.A. Hons. (Social Sciences), LL.B, LL.M (Gold Medalist)  |  UGC NET  |  Co-founder, Lawizard.

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