By Akinchan Aggarwal & Ipshita Arora, Advocates
This is the fully solved UGC-NET / JRF Law (Paper II, Code 58) paper from the examination held on 25 June 2025 (Shift 2). All 100 questions are reproduced with the four options, the correct answer as per the NTA provisional answer key, and an original explanation for each. A consolidated answer key appears at the end. This solved paper has been compiled by Akinchan Aggarwal and Ipshita Arora, Advocates.
How to use this solved paper
Attempt each question yourself first, then read the answer and explanation. Answers follow the NTA provisional key and are subject to the final official key; the explanations are the compilers’ own. Correct options are shown in bold.
Solved Questions with Explanations
Q1. What is the guiding principle of inheritance under Mitakshara?
(1) Religious efficacy
(2) Capacity to perform religious obligations
(3) Doctrine of sapinda relationship
(4) Capacity to offer religious obligations
Answer (3). Mitakshara succession rests on propinquity (nearness of blood) expressed through the doctrine of the sapinda relationship — community of the particles of the same body. It is the Dayabhaga school that follows the principle of religious efficacy (spiritual benefit).
Q2. Which of the following is not a general defence under Torts? (A. Mistake, B. Remoteness, C. Necessity, D. Consent)
(1) A and B Only
(2) C Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) B Only
Answer (4). Mistake, necessity and consent (volenti non fit injuria) are recognised general defences. Remoteness of damage is not a defence at all — it is a limiting principle that decides how far the consequences of a proved wrong are actionable (Wagon Mound).
Q3. Which of the following is not defined under Section 2 of BNS, 2023 and Chapter II of IPC, 1860?
(1) Animal
(2) Person
(3) Child
(4) Woman
Answer (3). The IPC's general-definitions chapter defined 'person', 'woman' and 'animal' but carried no general definition of 'child'. Hence 'child' is the odd one out among the four.
Q4. Which of the following is not true in the context of CSR?
(1) CSR Committee should consist of only one Director
(2) CSR was introduced by the Companies Act, 2013
(3) Company should spend at least 2% of average net profits of the preceding 3 financial years
(4) CSR is an implied agreement between company and society
Answer (1). Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, the CSR Committee must have three or more directors (at least one independent director). A single- director committee is therefore incorrect.
Q5. In which case did the Supreme Court give a split verdict on 23 July 2024 involving health, environment and intergenerational equity?
(1) M.C. Mehta v. U.O.I
(2) Animal Welfare Board of India v. U.O.I
(3) M.K. Ranjitsingh v. U.O.I
(4) Gene Campaign v. U.O.I
Answer (4). The split verdict of 23 July 2024 arose in Gene Campaign v. Union of India, concerning the environmental release of GM (genetically modified) mustard, engaging health, environment and intergenerational equity.
Q6. Match jurists with their definitions of Administrative Law (A. Wade, B. Garner, C. Griffith & Street, D. Ivor Jennings).
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer (4). Wade — law relating to the control of governmental power (IV); Garner — operation and control of administrative authorities (III→II as matched); Griffith & Street — rules regulating the administration of government (II); Ivor Jennings — the law relating to the administration, its organisation, powers and duties (I). The keyed combination is A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.
Q7. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that telephone tapping is a serious invasion of privacy?
(1) People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
(2) R. Rajagopal v. State of T.N.
(3) Mr. 'X' v. Hospital 'Z'
(4) State of Maharashtra v. Madhukar Narain
Answer (1). PUCL v. Union of India (1997) held that telephone tapping infringes the right to privacy under Article 21 and laid down procedural safeguards under the Telegraph Act.
Q8. Which Canadian legislation does not contain provisions related to Federation?
(1) Law of Federation, 1802
(2) British North America Act, 1867
(3) Constitution Act, 1982
(4) Constitution Act, 1867
Answer (1). There is no 'Law of Federation, 1802'. Canadian federalism flows from the British North America Act, 1867 (renamed the Constitution Act, 1867) and the Constitution Act, 1982.
Q9. Which is not a guardian under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956? (A. Guardian for marriage, B. Maternal guardian, C. Testamentary guardian, D. Guardian by affinity)
(1) A and B Only
(2) A Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) C Only
Answer (2). The HMGA, 1956 recognises natural, testamentary and court- appointed guardians (and de facto guardians). 'Guardian for marriage' is not a category under this Act — hence 'A Only'.
Q10. "International law is the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilised states in their relations with one another." This definition is attributed to:
(1) Oppenheim
(2) J.L. Brierly
(3) J.G. Starke
(4) Jeremy Bentham
Answer (2). This is J.L. Brierly's classic definition of international law. Oppenheim spoke of customary and treaty rules; Bentham coined the term 'international law'.
Q11. Match Type of IPR with Concept (Geographical Indication, Trademark, Patent, Copyright).
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (2). Patents feature post-grant opposition; trademarks the concept of honest concurrent use; copyright the protection of Rights Management Information; and GI the prohibition of assignment. The keyed match is option 2.
Q12. Which theory is not closely connected to intellectual property rights? (A. Economic, B. Autopoietic Legal, C. Social Planning, D. Instrumentalist, E. Social Contract)
(1) C and D Only
(2) A and E Only
(3) B Only
(4) D Only
Answer (3). Economic, social-planning, instrumentalist and (Lockean) social- contract/labour theories all underpin IP justifications. Autopoietic legal theory (Luhmann/Teubner) is a systems-theory of law, not an IP-justification theory.
Q13. Which is a landmark case on the importance of 'nationality'?
(1) North Sea Continental Shelf case
(2) Asylum case
(3) S.S. Lotus case
(4) Nottebohm case
Answer (4). Nottebohm (Liechtenstein v. Guatemala, 1955) laid down the 'genuine link' / effective-nationality principle for diplomatic protection.
Q14. Which is not true of a promissory note?
(1) It must be in writing and signed by the maker
(2) There must be an undertaking or promise to pay
(3) Such a promise must be conditional
(4) The promise must be for payment of money only
Answer (3). Under Section 4 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the promise to pay must be UNCONDITIONAL. A conditional promise cannot be a valid promissory note.
Q15. Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013 identifies shares and debentures as movable property?
(1) Section 44
(2) Section 45
(3) Section 46
(4) Section 47
Answer (1). Section 44 declares that the shares, debentures or other interest of a member are movable property, transferable in the manner provided by the articles.
Q16. Which statements are correct? (A. First NCW constituted 31.01.1992; B. NCBC given constitutional status by 102nd Amendment 2018; C. Ministry of Minority Affairs carved out of Social Justice; D. NCST under Art. 338; E. Art. 338A deals with NCSC)
(1) B, C, D Only
(2) C, D, E Only
(3) A, B, C Only
(4) A, C, E Only
Answer (3). A, B and C are correct. D and E are wrong because it is the other way round — Article 338 deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Article 338A with the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
Q17. Arrange in chronological order of coming into force: A. Biological Weapons Convention; B. Chemical Weapons Convention; C. Conventional Weapons Convention; D. Ottawa (Anti-Personnel Mines).
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, C, B, D
(3) C, A, B, D
(4) C, D, A, B
Answer (2). BWC entered into force 1975 (A), CCW in 1983 (C), CWC in 1997 (B) and the Ottawa Convention in 1999 (D) — giving the order A, C, B, D.
Q18. In which case did V.C. Kindersley formulate the golden rule for framing a prospectus?
(1) Methodist Church v. Union of India
(2) R v. Registrar of Companies
(3) New Brunswick Canada Railway Co. v. Muggeridge
(4) Jubilee Cotton Mills Ltd. v. Lewis
Answer (3). The 'golden legal rule' for prospectuses — that everything must be stated with strict and scrupulous accuracy — was laid down by Kindersley V.C. in New Brunswick & Canada Railway Co. v. Muggeridge.
Q19. Match jurist with statement (Montesquieu, Lee, Rudolph & Schlesinger, Maine).
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer (4). Montesquieu — comparative constitution is strange (I→IV as keyed); Lee used the term Rechtsvergleichung; Rudolph & Schlesinger; and Maine, author of 'Ancient Law' (1861) and regarded as a father of comparative law. The keyed combination is option 4.
Q20. Which decisions relate to extradition? (A. Savarkar, B. Abu Salem, C. Castioni re, D. Meunier re, E. Paquete Habana)
(1) A, B, C Only
(2) B, C, D, E Only
(3) A, B, C, D Only
(4) A, B, D, E Only
Answer (3). Savarkar, Abu Salem, Re Castioni and Re Meunier are extradition cases. Paquete Habana concerns customary international law (exemption of fishing vessels), not extradition.
Q21. Match authors/editors with book titles (Rainer Arnold, Vandana Shiva, Lenzerini Federico, Emily Crawford & Alison Pert).
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer (1). Vandana Shiva wrote 'Biopiracy: The Plunder of Nature and Knowledge'; Emily Crawford & Alison Pert wrote 'International Humanitarian Law'; giving the keyed match A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
Q22. Match authors with titles (A. J. Donnelly & D.J. Whelan, B. L. Rajamani & J. Peel, C. Karnika Seth, D. J. Gibson).
(1) B-I, C-IV, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer (3). Donnelly & Whelan — International Human Rights (I); Rajamani & Peel — Oxford Handbook of International Environmental Law (II); Karnika Seth — Computers, Internet and New Technology Laws (III); J. Gibson — Patenting Lives (IV): A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.
Q23. Arrange in order of enactment (ascending): A. West German Constitution; B. British North America Act; C. Australian Constitution Act; D. Articles of Confederation.
(1) D, B, C, A
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, A, C, D
(4) D, C, B, A
Answer (1). Articles of Confederation 1781 (D), British North America Act 1867 (B), Australian Constitution 1900 (C), West German Basic Law 1949 (A): D, B, C, A.
Q24. The United States Ombudsman Association was founded in which year?
(1) 1977
(2) 1976
(3) 1956
(4) 1986
Answer (1). The United States Ombudsman Association (USOA) was founded in 1977.
Q25. Which is not a theory of legal personality?
(1) Fiction theory
(2) Concession theory
(3) Interest theory
(4) Bracket theory
Answer (3). Fiction, concession and bracket (Ihering's beneficiary/purpose is separate) theories explain corporate/legal personality. 'Interest theory' is Ihering's theory of legal rights, not a theory of legal personality.
Q26. Which statement is incorrect about the characteristic features of a Waqf?
(1) Waqf properties are inalienable
(2) A testamentary Waqf is irrevocable
(3) A Waqf once created cannot be revoked
(4) A Waqf property vests in God
Answer (2). A Waqf is generally irrevocable, but a testamentary Waqf (made by will) CAN be revoked by the waqif during his lifetime, since a will operates only on death. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Q27. Match judicial decisions with issues (State of Gujarat v. Reliance; MC Ghaziabad v. CPCB; Hanuman Laxman Aroskar v. UOI; Riddhima Pandey v. UOI).
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer (3). State of Gujarat v. Reliance — green cess (IV); Ghaziabad v. CPCB — sewage treatment plants (I); Hanuman Laxman Aroskar (the Mopa airport case) — environmental clearance for infrastructure (III); Riddhima Pandey — climate change (II): A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II.
Q28. Which Article is called the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution?
(1) Article 32
(2) Article 21
(3) Article 14
(4) Article 226
Answer (1). Dr B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) as 'the heart and soul of the Constitution'.
Q29. Duties of a bailee under the Indian Contract Act (A–E).
(1) B, C, D, E Only
(2) C, D, E, A Only
(3) D, E, B, A Only
(4) A, B, C, D Only
Answer (4). A bailee must take reasonable care of the goods, not make unauthorised use, not mix them with his own, and return them on fulfilment of purpose (A, B, C, D). Statement E is wrongly framed — the bailee must in fact deliver any accretion/profit to the bailor (Section 163).
Q30. Which is not an absolute privilege under the law of torts?
(1) A petition to Parliament
(2) Words spoken before a Tribunal
(3) Communication made in self-protection
(4) State-matter communication between ministers
Answer (3). Parliamentary, judicial and State communications enjoy absolute privilege. A communication made in self-protection enjoys only QUALIFIED privilege (defeasible by malice).
Q31. The foundation of Federation in India was laid by which legislation?
(1) Government of India Act, 1919
(2) Government of India Act, 1935
(3) Constitution of India, 1950
(4) Queen's Proclamation of 1875
Answer (1). The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford reforms) introduced dyarchy and a division of subjects between the Centre and provinces, laying the first foundation of Indian federalism, which the 1935 Act developed further.
Q32. Match Schedules under the UCC of Uttarakhand, 2025 with topics.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer (1). As per the keyed match, Schedule 3 — form of certificate (II); Schedule 7 — form of certificate and extended certificate (IV); Schedule 5 — form of probate (I); Schedule 4 — form of caveat (III): A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
Q33. Match maxim with meaning (Erga Omnes, Jus Cogens, Pacta Sunt Servanda, Rebus Sic Stantibus).
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer (3). Erga omnes — owed to all/relation to all (I); jus cogens — peremptory norm (II); pacta sunt servanda — agreements are to be respected (III); rebus sic stantibus — essential circumstances remaining unchanged (IV): A- I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.
Q34. Match sections of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019 with provisions.
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer (4). Section 164B — Motor Vehicle Accident Fund (II); Section 162 — golden-hour scheme (III); Section 164A — interim relief scheme for claimants (IV); Section 159 — information regarding accident (I): A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
Q35. Which Amendment inserted 'Secularism, Socialism and Integrity' in the Preamble?
(1) 44th Amendment
(2) 42nd Amendment
(3) 73rd Amendment
(4) 74th Amendment
Answer (2). The 42nd Amendment, 1976 added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
Q36. Match heirs with succession categories (Hindu Succession Act).
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer (2). Paternal aunt's son — cognate (II); daughter's son's daughter — Class I heir (I); paternal uncle's daughter — agnate (IV); daughter of a predeceased son — Class I (III): A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
Q37. Match propounder with idea (Mimansa, Smriti, Post-Reformation Europe, Korkunov).
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Answer (1). Mimansa distinguishes obligatory and recommendatory rules (IV); Smriti — law and morals are the same (I); Post-Reformation Europe — law derives authority from the State, not morals (III); Korkunov — 'idea of values' as the foundation (II): A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II.
Q38. The Estrada doctrine on recognition of States and governments is primarily related to which country?
(1) Spain
(2) Mexico
(3) Germany
(4) China
Answer (2). The Estrada doctrine (1930), named after Mexican Foreign Secretary Genaro Estrada, is Mexico's policy of recognising the de facto existence of a government rather than judging its legitimacy.
Q39. Arrange IT Act, 2000 provisions section-wise: A. Misrepresentation; B. Identity theft; C. Cyber terrorism; D. Breach of confidentiality/privacy; E. Violation of privacy.
(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) C, B, A, E, D
(3) B, A, C, D, E
(4) B, E, C, A, D
Answer (4). By section number: 66C identity theft (B), 66E violation of privacy (E), 66F cyber terrorism (C), 71 misrepresentation (A), 72 breach of confidentiality (D): B, E, C, A, D.
Q40. A Christian man X and a Hindu girl Y register an 'Agreement of Marriage' on stamp paper and exchange garlands/mangalsutra. Is it a valid marriage?
(1) Valid — registered by agreement
(2) Valid — ceremonies performed
(3) Not valid — legal validity test not complete
(4) Valid — customary rites followed
Answer (3). A valid marriage requires compliance with a governing law (Special Marriage Act for an inter-faith couple, or the ceremonies of a personal law that applies to them). A mere registered agreement with informal rites does not satisfy the legal validity test — so it is not a valid marriage.
Q41. When did the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notify the Biological Diversity Rules, 2024?
(1) 25 December 2024
(2) 18 January 2024
(3) 1 April 2024
(4) 22 October 2024
Answer (4). The Biological Diversity Rules, 2024 were notified on 22 October 2024.
Q42. Arrange US Constitutional Amendments (ascending): A. 18-year-old suffrage; B. Black suffrage; C. Abolition of slavery; D. Women's suffrage.
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D, A
(3) C, B, D, A
(4) A, C, B, D
Answer (3). 13th Amendment abolished slavery 1865 (C); 15th gave Black suffrage 1870 (B); 19th gave women's suffrage 1920 (D); 26th lowered voting age to 18 in 1971 (A): C, B, D, A.
Q43. Which section of the BNS, 2023 replaced Section 124A IPC by prohibiting 'acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India'?
(1) Section 112
(2) Section 152
(3) Section 95
(4) Section 304
Answer (2). Sedition (IPC 124A) was repealed and reworked as Section 152 of the BNS, 2023 — 'Act endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India'.
Q44. Which is not a meaning of 'dominant position' under the Competition Act, 2002?
(1) Position of strength
(2) Operating independently of competitive forces
(3) Cartel activity among competitors
(4) Affecting competitors or consumers in its favour
Answer (3). Dominant position (Explanation to Section 4) is a position of strength enabling an enterprise to operate independently of competitive forces or to affect competitors/consumers in its favour. A cartel is an anti-competitive AGREEMENT under Section 3, not 'dominant position'.
Q45. From which country is Part IV of the Indian Constitution (DPSP) borrowed?
(1) Russia
(2) Ireland
(3) USA
(4) Spain
Answer (2). The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) were borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
Q46. Which are correct about 'legal theory'? (A. Defines law; B. Analyses legal concepts; C. Only theory, no practical importance; D. Highlights salient features of a legal system)
(1) A, B, C Only
(2) B, C, D Only
(3) A, B, D Only
(4) A, C, D Only
Answer (3). Legal theory defines law, analyses legal concepts and highlights the features of legal systems (A, B, D). Statement C is false — legal theory has significant practical value.
Q47. Arrange provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 in order of appearance: A. Inquiry into complaints; B. Procedure re armed forces; C. Investigation; D. Powers relating to inquiry; E. Statements made to the Commission.
(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) A, D, E, B, C
(3) A, D, C, E, B
(4) D, C, E, A, B
Answer (4). By section order: Section 13 powers relating to inquiry (D), 14 investigation (C), 15 statements to the Commission (E), 17 inquiry into complaints (A), 19 procedure re armed forces (B): D, C, E, A, B.
Q48. Which is true about separation of powers in the Constitution of Canada? (A. Only between judiciary and Parliament; B. Between executive and legislature; C. No general separation; D. No parallel with presidentialism)
(1) B, D Only
(2) A, C Only
(3) A, B Only
(4) C, D Only
Answer (2). Canada follows the Westminster model with a fusion of executive and legislature; there is no general/strict separation of powers (though judicial independence is protected). Hence A and C.
Q49. Which Articles incorporate the expression 'right to life'? (A. Art 3 UDHR; B. Art 6 ICCPR; C. Art 9 ICESCR; D. Art 3 OP2 ICCPR)
(1) A and C Only
(2) A and B Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) B and D Only
Answer (2). Article 3 of the UDHR ('right to life, liberty and security') and Article 6 of the ICCPR ('every human being has the inherent right to life') expressly protect the right to life. Hence A and B.
Q50. Who wrote 'The Postmodern Condition: A Report on Knowledge'?
(1) Michel Foucault
(2) Jean-François Lyotard
(3) Jacques Derrida
(4) Jean Baudrillard
Answer (2). 'The Postmodern Condition: A Report on Knowledge' (1979) was written by Jean-François Lyotard, famous for defining the postmodern as 'incredulity towards metanarratives'.
Q51. "True subject matter of ownership in all cases is a right." Who said this?
(1) Grotius
(2) Roscoe Pound
(3) Salmond
(4) Ihering
Answer (3). This statement is attributed to Salmond, who analysed ownership as a relationship between a person and a right (rather than a thing).
Q52. Which statements are incorrect about adoption? (A–E)
(1) B, E Only
(2) A, C Only
(3) C, D Only
(4) D, E Only
Answer (1). Under the HAMA, 1956, a married Hindu male CANNOT adopt without his wife's consent, so B is incorrect. And it is a MINOR (below 15, unless custom permits) who may be adopted, not a major of sound mind, so E is incorrect. Hence 'B, E Only'.
Q53. Which Act is NOT included in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?
(1) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(2) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(3) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(4) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
Answer (4). Schedule I of the NGT Act lists seven environmental laws (Water, Air, EPA, Forest Conservation, Public Liability Insurance, Biological Diversity, etc.). The Forest Rights Act, 2006 is not among them.
Q54. Arrange chronologically (ascending): A. RPwD Act (India); B. OP to CEDAW; C. UN Principles for Older Persons; D. UN CRPD; E. UN Declaration on Minorities.
(1) A, B, D, C, E
(2) C, E, B, D, A
(3) C, D, A, E, B
(4) D, A, C, B, E
Answer (2). UN Principles for Older Persons 1991 (C); UN Declaration on Minorities 1992 (E); Optional Protocol to CEDAW 1999 (B); UN CRPD 2006 (D); RPwD Act (India) 2016 (A): C, E, B, D, A.
Q55. Which statements are correct about the Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation? (A–D)
(1) A, B, D Only
(2) A, B, C Only
(3) B, C, D Only
(4) A, C, D Only
Answer (2). The doctrine is important in the development of judicial review, is well established in public law, and has developed both in the context of reasonableness and natural justice (A, B, C). Statement D is inaccurate as to the 'first appearance' of the concept.
Q56. Judicial review was first applied by the US Supreme Court in which case?
(1) Marbury v. Madison
(2) North Wales Police v. Evans
(3) Minerva v. State of Georgia
(4) Reg v. Home Secretary
Answer (1). Marbury v. Madison (1803) established the power of judicial review in the United States.
Q57. Arrange Indian Contract Act cases chronologically (ascending): A. State of M.P. v. Gobardhan Das; B. New India Assurance v. Haryana Roadways; C. Chairman T.N. Tea Plantation v. Srinivasa Timbers; D. GSRTC v. B. Arunchandra.
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D, A
(3) C, D, B, A
(4) D, B, A, C
Answer (1). As per the key, the ascending chronological order of these decisions is A, B, C, D.
Q58. In which case did the Supreme Court strike down Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000?
(1) Shreya Singhal v. U.O.I
(2) Ajay Canu v. U.O.I
(3) Tata Cellular v. U.O.I
(4) Supreme Court Bar Association v. U.O.I
Answer (1). Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015) struck down Section 66A of the IT Act as violative of Article 19(1)(a) for being vague and overbroad.
Q59. On which date did the United Nations come into existence?
(1) 20 October 1945
(2) 24 October 1945
(3) 10 December 1948
(4) 10 December 1945
Answer (2). The UN Charter came into force and the UN came into existence on 24 October 1945 (celebrated as UN Day).
Q60. Which theory/theories are predominantly related to 'attempt' in criminal law? (A. Last seen; B. Proximity; C. Impossibility; D. Reformatory)
(1) A and C Only
(2) C and D Only
(3) B and C Only
(4) A and B Only
Answer (4). The tests of criminal attempt include the proximity rule (B) and the doctrine of impossibility (C). ('Last seen' is a rule of evidence in homicide; 'reformatory' is a theory of punishment.) As per the key, the answer is 'A and B Only'.
Q61. Arrange maintenance cases chronologically (ascending): A. Saira Banu v. AM Abdul Gafoor; B. Danial Latifi v. UOI; C. Noor Saba Khatoon v. Mohd. Quasim; D. Md. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum.
(1) D, C, A, B
(2) C, D, B, A
(3) A, B, D, C
(4) D, A, C, B
Answer (4). Shah Bano 1985 (D); Saira Banu 1987 (A); Noor Saba Khatoon 1997 (C); Danial Latifi 2001 (B): D, A, C, B.
Q62. Match principles of natural justice with case laws (Pecuniary bias, Personal bias, Official bias, Judicial obstinacy).
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (2). Pecuniary bias — Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal (II); Personal bias — Mineral Development Ltd. v. State of Bihar (III); Official/departmental bias — Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. A.P. SRTC (I); Judicial obstinacy — State of W.B. v. Shivananda Pathak (IV): A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
Q63. Which Schedule contains special provisions for administration and control of Scheduled Areas?
(1) Fifth
(2) Third
(3) Seventh
(4) Ninth
Answer (1). The Fifth Schedule provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes (other than those in the North-East, which fall under the Sixth Schedule).
Q64. Which statements are correct about standard-form contracts? (A–E)
(1) B, C, E Only
(2) A, B, C Only
(3) B, C, D Only
(4) A, D, C Only
Answer (1). For a standard-form contract there must be reasonable notice of the terms, no misrepresentation, and such terms are commonly used to contract with numerous persons (B, C, E). Statements A and D are wrongly worded.
Q65. Arrange Natural Law developments (ascending): A. Union with the Divine is the end of law; B. Church is the law-giver; C. Development of Rationalism; D. Revival of Natural Law.
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, A, D
(3) D, C, B, A
(4) A, C, B, D
Answer (1). Ancient (union with the divine, A) → Medieval (the Church as law- giver, B) → Renaissance/Enlightenment rationalism (C) → 20th-century revival of natural law (D): A, B, C, D.
Q66. H and W are married; H obtains a divorce decree from the family court. When can H NOT remarry?
(1) When there is no right of appeal against the decree
(2) When the time for appeal has expired
(3) When an appeal was dismissed
(4) When the divorce decree was stayed
Answer (4). A party may remarry only once the decree has become final. If the decree is stayed (e.g., pending appeal), it is not operative, so H cannot remarry.
Q67. Mark the incorrect statement under Muslim law on wills (A–D).
(1) A, D Only
(2) B Only
(3) C, A Only
(4) D Only
Answer (4). A will made by a person who subsequently commits suicide is NOT automatically invalid under (Sunni) Muslim law — statement D is incorrect. (Some schools treat a will made after taking poison/injuring oneself with suicidal intent differently, but as a general statement D is wrong.)
Q68. Which is not true about the powers of the President of India? (A–D)
(1) D Only
(2) B, C Only
(3) C Only
(4) A, B Only
Answer (1). Statement D is wrong: the President promulgates ordinances under Article 123, not Article 213 (which is the Governor's ordinance power). The other statements (Supreme Commander, treaty-making in his name, summoning/dissolving Parliament) are correct.
Q69. Which Law Commission Report recommended irretrievable breakdown of marriage as a ground for divorce?
(1) 73rd Report
(2) 72nd Report
(3) 71st Report
(4) 70th Report
Answer (3). The 71st Report of the Law Commission of India (1978) recommended adding irretrievable breakdown of marriage as a ground for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act.
Q70. Arrange the GATT negotiation rounds (1947–1994) chronologically: A. Annecy; B. Kennedy Round; C. Tokyo; D. Torquay.
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, A, D
(3) A, D, B, C
(4) C, B, D, A
Answer (3). Annecy 1949 (A), Torquay 1951 (D), Kennedy Round 1964-67 (B), Tokyo Round 1973-79 (C): A, D, B, C.
Q71. Which case does NOT relate to the concept of absolute liability in India?
(1) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. UOI
(2) Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels
(3) Madras Railway Co. v. Zamindar of Carvatenagram
(4) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
Answer (2). Enviro-Legal Action (Bichhri), M.C. Mehta (Oleum) and the Madras Railway case concern strict/absolute liability. Klaus Mittelbachert v. East India Hotels dealt with the liability of a five-star hotel to a guest — negligence/occupier's liability, not the Rylands/absolute-liability line.
Q72. Which statements are NOT correct about the US Constitution? (A. Mode of amendment in Article IV; B. 2/3 of both Houses may propose; C. Ratified by 3/4 of State legislatures; D. Cannot be amended by Convention)
(1) A and B Only
(2) A and D Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) B and D Only
Answer (2). The amending procedure is in Article V (not IV), so A is wrong; and the Constitution CAN be amended via a national convention route, so D is wrong. B and C are correct. Hence 'A and D Only'.
Q73. Arrange Article-wise (Indian Constitution): A. Failure of constitutional machinery in a State; B. Proclamation of Emergency; C. Financial Emergency; D. Suspension of Article 19 during emergency.
(1) B, A, D, C
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D, A
(4) D, A, B, C
Answer (1). Article 352 Proclamation of Emergency (B), 356 President's Rule (A), 358 suspension of Art 19 (D), 360 Financial Emergency (C): B, A, D, C.
Q74. What is the US equivalent of India's Right to Information Act, 2005?
(1) Freedom of Information Act, 1966
(2) Freedom of Information Act, 1954
(3) Freedom of Information Act, 1924
(4) Freedom of Information Act, 1967
Answer (1). The US Freedom of Information Act was enacted in 1966 (effective 1967). The keyed answer is 1966.
Q75. Match the position of directors with case law (Agents, Employees, Trustees, Fiduciary relationship).
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (3). Directors as agents — Ferguson v. Wilson (I); as employees — R.R. Kothandaraman v. CIT (II); as trustees — Great Eastern Rly. Co. v. Turner (III); in a fiduciary relationship — Re Forest of Dean Coal Mining Co. (IV): A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.
Q76. Match exceptions to Section 300 IPC with exception number (Grave & sudden provocation; Exceeding private defence; Sudden fight; Consent).
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer (2). Grave and sudden provocation is Exception 1 (II→as keyed), exceeding the right of private defence is Exception 2, death in a sudden fight is Exception 4, and death by consent is Exception 5: keyed as A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I.
Q77. Which are correct about the 'Rule of Law'? (A. From 'La principe de legalite'; B. Called supremacy of law; C. Promotes arbitrary governance; D. Decisions by discretion only)
(1) B, C Only
(2) C, D Only
(3) A, D Only
(4) A, B Only
Answer (4). The Rule of Law derives from the French phrase 'la principe de légalité' and denotes the supremacy of law (A, B). It is the OPPOSITE of arbitrary/discretionary governance, so C and D are wrong.
Q78. Which UN organ addresses global-justice concerns?
(1) Trusteeship Council
(2) General Assembly
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) Security Council
Answer (2). The General Assembly, as the plenary deliberative organ, is the principal forum addressing global-justice concerns across development, human rights and equity.
Q79. 'X', an insane person, kills 'Y' by firing a loaded gun. X has committed which offence?
(1) No offence at all
(2) Grievous hurt
(3) Murder
(4) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
Answer (1). If X is legally insane within Section 84 IPC / Section 22 BNS (incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that it was wrong), he commits NO offence — insanity is a complete general exception.
Q80. Match doctrine with opinion (Jus Necessitatis, Malice, Dolus & Culpa, Intention & Negligence).
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer (1). Jus necessitatis — a man's right to do that from which he cannot be dissuaded (IV); Malice — collective term for intention and recklessness (I); Dolus and Culpa — two forms of mens rea (II); Intention and Negligence — two alternative conditions of penal liability (III): A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.
Q81. Which are characteristics of a 'legal right'? (A–D)
(1) B, C, D Only
(2) A, C, D Only
(3) A, B, C Only
(4) A, B, D Only
Answer (4). A legal right vests in a person and avails against a person, involves an act or omission in favour of the person entitled, and has a title (source). Statement C ('act/omission relates to a thing') is not an essential characteristic — hence A, B, D.
Q82. Which Article of the Geneva Conventions of 1949 is called the 'mini- convention within the conventions'?
(1) Article 2
(2) Article 3
(3) Article 4
(4) Article 5
Answer (2). Common Article 3 — identical in all four Geneva Conventions — sets minimum humane-treatment guarantees for non-international armed conflicts and is called the 'convention in miniature'.
Q83. Arrange Article-wise (Indian Constitution): A. Establishment of Supreme Court; B. Original jurisdiction of SC; C. Legislative power of Governor; D. Transfer of a High Court judge; E. Jurisdiction of existing High Courts.
(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) E, D, C, B, A
(3) D, C, B, A, E
(4) E, C, D, B, A
Answer (1). Article 124 establishment of SC (A), 131 original jurisdiction (B), 213 Governor's ordinance/legislative power (C)... as keyed, the ascending order is A, B, C, D, E.
Q84. Which provision of the Partnership Act explains the evidentiary value of entries in the Register of Firms?
(1) Section 65
(2) Section 66
(3) Section 67
(4) Section 68
Answer (2). Section 68 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 makes entries in the Register of Firms conclusive proof of the facts stated. As per the key the answer is Section 66; note that the standard provision on evidentiary value is Section 68 — verify against the final key.
Q85. Arrange cases on Gift under Muslim law chronologically (ascending): A. Maqbool Alam v. Khadija; B. Khurshida Begum v. Mohammad Farooq; C. Abdul Rahim v. Abdul Zabar; D. Valie v. Puthakkalam.
(1) C, B, D, A
(2) D, A, C, B
(3) B, C, A, D
(4) A, D, B, C
Answer (1). As per the key, the ascending order of these Muslim-law gift (hiba) decisions is C, B, D, A.
Q86. Arrange in order of appearance in the Indian Contract Act: A. Agreement by way of wager; B. Restraint of legal proceedings; C. Restraint of trade; D. Restraint of marriage.
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D, A
(3) D, C, B, A
(4) C, D, A, B
Answer (3). Section 26 restraint of marriage (D), 27 restraint of trade (C), 28 restraint of legal proceedings (B), 30 wagering agreements (A): D, C, B, A.
Q87. In which case did the Supreme Court issue fourteen directions to eradicate manual scavenging and hazardous cleaning?
(1) Anoop Baranwal v. UOI
(2) Govt of NCT of Delhi v. UOI
(3) Adivasis for Social and Human Rights Action v. UOI
(4) Dr. Balram Singh v. UOI
Answer (4). Dr. Balram Singh v. Union of India (2023) issued a set of directions to the Union and States for the complete eradication of manual scavenging and hazardous sewer/septic-tank cleaning.
Q88. What does 'injury' mean under Section 44 IPC / Section 2(14) BNS?
(1) Harm to body and mind
(2) Harm to body and property
(3) Harm illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property
(4) Harm to body, mind and reputation
Answer (3). 'Injury' denotes any harm illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation OR property. All four dimensions are covered.
Q89. Which rules relate to 'nulla poena sine lege'? (A. Retroactivity; B. Strict construction; C. Certainty in legislation; D. Accessibility; E. Liberal interpretation)
(1) C, D, E Only
(2) A, B, E Only
(3) A, D, E Only
(4) B, C, D Only
Answer (3). 'No penalty without law' entails no retroactivity, certainty, accessibility and strict (not liberal) construction. As per the key the answer marks the components tied to legality/accessibility of the penal law (A, D, E).
Q90. Arrange patent-grant procedure section-wise: A. Time for putting application in order; B. Request for examination; C. Publication; D. Priority date; E. Mention of inventor.
(1) D, C, B, A, E
(2) B, C, D, A, E
(3) E, A, D, C, B
(4) A, E, B, C, D
Answer (4). By the Patents Act scheme (ss. 11–43): as keyed, the sequence is A, E, B, C, D — verify against the final key for the exact ordering. Comprehension — read the passage Under English law a transsexual could not marry a partner of his or her original sex because sex was declared at birth and could not be changed by artificial intervention; marriage was between one man and one woman. In 2002 the European Court of Human Rights held the UK in breach of Articles 8 and 12 of the European Convention for failing to recognise a transsexual's new gender. In Bellinger v. Bellinger the House of Lords declared s. 11(c) of the Matrimonial Causes Act, 1973 incompatible with the Convention. Parliament responded with the Gender Recognition Act, 2004, allowing a transsexual over 18 who meets medical criteria to obtain a Gender Recognition Certificate.
Q91. The Gender Recognition Act came up in which year?
(1) 2002
(2) 2003
(3) 1994
(4) 2004
Answer (4). Per the passage, the Gender Recognition Act was enacted in 2004.
Q92. Which section of the Matrimonial Causes Act, 1973 was incompatible with the European Convention?
(1) 11(c)
(2) 12(a)
(3) 11(g)
(4) 1(c)
Answer (1). The House of Lords in Bellinger declared s. 11(c) incompatible with the Convention.
Q93. Failure to recognise a transsexual's new gender contravened which Articles of the European Convention?
(1) Articles 8 and 12
(2) Articles 9 and 11
(3) Articles 1 and 2
(4) Articles 11 and 8
Answer (1). The ECtHR found breaches of Article 8 (private life) and Article 12 (right to marry).
Q94. Which document provided legal status to the acquired gender?
(1) Order of Court
(2) Declaration by Crown
(3) Regulation 1 of the European Convention
(4) Gender Recognition Certificate
Answer (4). The Gender Recognition Certificate under the 2004 Act conferred the legal status of the acquired gender.
Q95. Which is NOT correct about the traditional notion of 'transsexuals'?
(1) They enjoyed full legal status
(2) They could not marry a partner of their original sex
(3) Sex could not be changed by artificial intervention
(4) Marriage was valid only between one man and one woman
Answer (1). Under the traditional notion transsexuals did NOT enjoy full legal status — that is precisely the deficiency the 2004 Act addressed. Statement 1 is therefore not correct. Comprehension — read the passage Moral rights first became part of the international system with their inclusion in the Berne Convention at the 1928 Rome revision conference. The text was amended only twice — at the Brussels revision conference (1948) and the Stockholm conference (1967) — and those amendments did not introduce substantial change except to clarify (and in places narrow) limitations on moral rights that earlier negotiators had taken for granted.
Q96. What is NOT correct about the Rome Revision Conference, 1928?
(1) It incorporated moral rights into the Berne Convention
(2) The 1928 text on moral rights has never been amended
(3) Stockholm's focus was not to nullify the moral rights introduced at Rome
(4) Brussels brought the first amendment to the 1928 text
Answer (2). The passage says the moral-rights text was amended twice (1948 Brussels and 1967 Stockholm). So the claim that it 'never underwent any amendment' is incorrect.
Q97. Which brought clarification on limitations of moral rights?
(1) Rome Conference
(2) Brussels Revision Conference alone
(3) Both Brussels and Stockholm Conferences
(4) Stockholm Conference alone
Answer (3). Both the 1948 Brussels and 1967 Stockholm conferences focused on clarifying (and limiting) moral rights.
Q98. Which is true about moral rights?
(1) The 1948 and 1967 amendments enlarged their scope
(2) Brussels and Stockholm clarified limitations on moral rights
(3) Brussels and Stockholm brought substantial changes
(4) The original Berne text carried moral-rights provisions
Answer (2). Per the passage, the Brussels and Stockholm conferences clarified the limitations on moral rights rather than enlarging them or making substantive changes.
Q99. Which international instrument incorporates the protection of moral rights?
(1) Stockholm Convention
(2) Brussels Convention
(3) Berne Convention
(4) Rome Convention
Answer (3). Moral rights are protected under Article 6bis of the Berne Convention.
Q100. In which year were 'moral rights' first introduced into the international system?
(1) 1967
(2) 1928
(3) 1886
(4) 1948
Answer (2). Moral rights entered the international system at the 1928 Rome revision of the Berne Convention.
Answer Key at a Glance
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
| 1 | (3) | 21 | (1) | 41 | (4) | 61 | (4) | 81 | (4) |
| 2 | (4) | 22 | (3) | 42 | (3) | 62 | (2) | 82 | (2) |
| 3 | (3) | 23 | (1) | 43 | (2) | 63 | (1) | 83 | (1) |
| 4 | (1) | 24 | (1) | 44 | (3) | 64 | (1) | 84 | (2) |
| 5 | (4) | 25 | (3) | 45 | (2) | 65 | (1) | 85 | (1) |
| 6 | (4) | 26 | (2) | 46 | (3) | 66 | (4) | 86 | (3) |
| 7 | (1) | 27 | (3) | 47 | (4) | 67 | (4) | 87 | (3) |
| 8 | (1) | 28 | (1) | 48 | (2) | 68 | (1) | 88 | (3) |
| 9 | (2) | 29 | (4) | 49 | (2) | 69 | (3) | 89 | (3) |
| 10 | (2) | 30 | (3) | 50 | (2) | 70 | (3) | 90 | (4) |
| 11 | (2) | 31 | (1) | 51 | (3) | 71 | (2) | 91 | (4) |
| 12 | (3) | 32 | (1) | 52 | (1) | 72 | (2) | 92 | (1) |
| 13 | (4) | 33 | (3) | 53 | (4) | 73 | (1) | 93 | (1) |
| 14 | (3) | 34 | (4) | 54 | (2) | 74 | (1) | 94 | (4) |
| 15 | (1) | 35 | (2) | 55 | (2) | 75 | (3) | 95 | (1) |
| 16 | (3) | 36 | (2) | 56 | (1) | 76 | (2) | 96 | (2) |
| 17 | (2) | 37 | (1) | 57 | (1) | 77 | (4) | 97 | (3) |
| 18 | (3) | 38 | (2) | 58 | (1) | 78 | (2) | 98 | (2) |
| 19 | (4) | 39 | (4) | 59 | (2) | 79 | (1) | 99 | (3) |
| 20 | (3) | 40 | (3) | 60 | (4) | 80 | (1) | 100 | (2) |
Disclaimer: The questions are from the official UGC-NET June 2025 Law (Paper II) examination. Answers follow the NTA provisional key and are subject to the final official key. The explanations are the compilers’ own and are provided for educational purposes only.
