AIBE XXI Question Paper Set D with Answers and Explanations

Prepared by Akinchan Aggarwal, Advocate — B.A. (Hons.) Gold Medalist, LL.B. (University Rank 2), LL.M. (Dispute Resolution), UGC-NET, Ph.D. (Pursuing)

This post reproduces the complete question paper of the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) XXI — Set D (English), with all one hundred questions and their options set out in order. After each question you will find the correct answer followed by an explanation of why that answer is right.

An important distinction, before you begin.

The answers given below are taken from the Final Answer Key published by the Bar Council of India on 10 July 2026. They are not my opinion. Where the Council has accepted more than one option — as it has in Question 91 — that is noted.

The explanations, on the other hand, are my own. They are written to show the reasoning and the provision behind each answer. Where an explanation and the official key were ever to diverge, the official key governs. Nothing here displaces it.

Why work through a past paper this way

Reading a bare answer key teaches very little. You learn that (C) was right, and you forget it by the following week. What actually builds competence is knowing why the other three options were wrong — because AIBE distractors are not random. They are usually the adjacent section, the repealed provision, the period that applies to a different appeal, or the rule that governs a similar but distinct situation.

So the suggested method is this. Cover the answer. Attempt the question honestly. Only then read the explanation — and read it even when you got the question right, because being right for the wrong reason is the most expensive habit in an objective examination.

AIBE is an open-book examination. That does not make it easy; it makes it a test of navigation speed. A candidate who knows that limitation for a first appeal to the High Court sits in Article 116 of the Schedule will find it in seconds. A candidate who merely knows "it is somewhere in the Limitation Act" will lose four minutes and, across a paper, the examination. Use these hundred questions to build that index in your head.

The paper

Correct options are marked with a tick and shaded. Question numbering follows Set D.

Q1. The term “Public Interest Litigation (PIL)” was first used by :

(A) Prof. Abram Chayes ✔
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Prof. Upendra Baxi
(D) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The term public law litigation was coined by Prof. Abram Chayes of Harvard in his 1976 article on the role of the judge in public law litigation. Bhagwati and Krishna Iyer JJ. developed and popularised PIL in India, but the expression itself originates with Chayes.

Q2. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committees appointed, and all representations received by it before the date notified in the Gazette notification, the appropriate Government may by notification in the official gazette, fix or revise the minimum rates of wages. Conclusion I : If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date. Conclusion II : If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow ✔
(B) Only Conclusion I follows
(C) Only Conclusion II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Both conclusions restate Section 5(2) of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948: the revised rates come into force on the date specified in the notification, and where no date is specified, on the expiry of three months from the date of its issue.

Q3. Which of the following is included in the Central Government’s power under Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?

(A) Carrying out and sponsoring investigations and research relating to problems of environmental pollution
(B) Laying down standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects
(C) Collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to environmental pollution
(D) Planning and execution of a nation‑wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Centre to plan and execute a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution. The other options correspond to different clauses of Section 3(2) — standards, research and dissemination.

Q4. Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements in the context of constitutional amendments : I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments. th II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure. III. Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 is unlimited. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(A) I only
(B) I and II ✔
(C) II and III
(D) I, II and III

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Statements I and II are correct. Kesavananda Bharati established that constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review, and I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 remain open to basic structure scrutiny. III is wrong: the amending power under Article 368 is not unlimited.

Q5. What do you mean by ‘onus probandi’ ?

(A) ‘Burden of proof’ which places the responsibility on the party making an affirmative claim to substantiate it with evidence. ✔
(B) “The fact to be proved” or the “ultimate fact” that needs to be established in a legal case, such as the core elements of a crime or a cause of action.
(C) The prosecution in a criminal case must prove beyond a reasonable doubt, not only a criminal act, but also a certain level of a guilty mind (mens rea), specified in the criminal statute.
(D) Actual evidence, documents, or witnesses presented to substantiate that claim.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Onus probandi is the burden of proof — the obligation on the party asserting a fact to establish it. Option (B) describes the factum probandum, (C) states the criminal standard with mens rea, and (D) refers to the evidence itself rather than the burden.

Q6. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has abated due to failure to bring legal representatives on record within the prescribed time, the court may set aside such abatement if the plaintiff shows :

(A) That decree has not yet been passed.
(B) Sufficient cause for not making the application within time. ✔
(C) Error apparent on the face of record.
(D) That the defendant had knowledge of death.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Under Order XXII Rule 9 CPC, an abatement may be set aside where the plaintiff shows sufficient cause for not making the application to bring legal representatives on record within time. The other options are irrelevant to abatement.

Q7. According to Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall :

(A) Treat the claimant’s allegations as admitted.
(B) Proceed to decide the dispute treating the claimant’s case as uncontroverted.
(C) Continue the proceedings without treating such failure as admission. ✔
(D) Terminate the proceedings.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that where the respondent fails to communicate his statement of defence, the tribunal shall continue the proceedings without treating that failure in itself as an admission of the claimant's allegations. The claimant must still prove his case.

Q8. Under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, for what duration can maintenance be awarded ?

(A) For a fixed term not exceeding ten years
(B) For a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff ✔
(C) For a period determined solely by the Registrar
(D) For a maximum of five years only

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Section 40 of the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936 permits permanent alimony and maintenance to be ordered for a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff, having regard to the defendant's means and the conduct of the parties.

Q9. The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which of the following rights ?

(A) Right to speedy trial
(B) Right to clean and healthy environment
(C) Right to emergency medical care ✔
(D) Right to life and personal liberty

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) held that every doctor, whether in government service or private practice, is under a professional obligation to extend emergency medical care to preserve life, and that no procedural formality can be allowed to delay it.

Q10. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?

(A) Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1 – landmark judgment stands as the latest interpretation of the relevant provisions, offering a consistent approach in line with the legislative intent.
(B) The requirement of a certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (“Evidence Act”), is a condition precedent to the admissibility of an electronic record in evidence.
(C) In P.V. Anvar v. P.K. Basheer, the court held that Section 65B is a “complete code” for electronic evidence.
(D) In State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, reported in AIR 2005 SC 3820, the Hon’ble Supreme Court had held that courts could admit electronic records such as printouts and compact discs (CDs) as prima facie evidence without authentication. ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Statement (D) is not a correct statement of the law. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu did say that, but it was expressly overruled in Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014) and disapproved again in Arjun Panditrao (2020). The certificate under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent for secondary electronic evidence.

Q11. Under the law relating to land acquisition under the relevant laws in India, which of the following statements is not true ?

(A) Such interested persons may file objections within 6 months of the notice having been issued.
(B) All persons interested in the land in question shall appear personally before the Collector. ✔
(C) A minimum notice period of 30 days is to be given to all the persons interested.
(D) The Collector shall publish the public notice on his website.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Statement (B) is not true. Persons interested in the land may appear in person or through an agent or legal practitioner; personal appearance before the Collector is not compulsory. The notice period, the website publication and the objection window are correctly stated.

Q12. In execution proceedings governed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where property of the judgment‑debtor is attached and a third party raises a claim asserting independent title, such claim :

(A) Can be decided only after completion of execution proceedings.
(B) Must be decided by instituting a separate civil suit.
(C) Shall be adjudicated by the executing court. ✔
(D) Requires prior determination by the court which passed the decree.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Under Order XXI Rule 58 CPC, claims and objections to the attachment of property in execution — including a third party asserting independent title — are to be adjudicated by the executing court itself. A separate suit is no longer required.

Q13. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957 : Statement I : In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published. Statement II : For such works, publication refers to making the work available to the public by issue of copies or by communication to the public.

(A) Both Statements I and II are true ✔
(B) Both Statements I and II are false
(C) Only Statement II is true
(D) Only Statement I is true

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Under Section 24 of the Copyright Act, 1957, copyright in a posthumous literary work subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year of first publication, and publication bears the meaning given in Section 3.

Q14. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for giving or taking dowry ?

(A) Not less than ten years
(B) Not less than three years
(C) Not less than seven years
(D) Not less than five years ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Section 3 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 prescribes imprisonment of not less than five years and a fine of not less than fifteen thousand rupees or the amount of the dowry, whichever is more.

Q15. Which is the landmark case which expanded the scope of Article 23 of the Constitution of India ?

(A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, (1997) 6 SCC 241
(B) PUDR v. Union of India, (1982) 3 SCC 235 ✔
(C) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, (1996) 6 SCC 756
(D) Glaxo Laboratories v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court, Meerut, (1984) 1 SCC 1

Answer: (B)

Explanation: People's Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India (1982), the Asiad Workers case, expanded Article 23 by holding that payment of wages below the statutory minimum amounts to 'forced labour', and that the prohibition operates against private persons as well as the State.

Q16. As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may :

(A) Return the plaint for fresh presentation.
(B) Dismiss the suit. ✔
(C) Stay the proceedings until service is effected.
(D) Proceed to decide the suit on merits.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Under Order IX Rule 2 CPC, where summons cannot be served because the plaintiff has failed to pay the court fee or postal charges within the time allowed, the court may dismiss the suit.

Q17. Under the scheme of distribution of legislative powers in the Constitution of India, a subject which is not enumerated in either the State List or the Concurrent List falls within the residuary field of legislation. Such residuary power is vested in :

(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The Parliament ✔
(C) The State Legislatures
(D) The President of India

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Article 248 read with Entry 97 of List I vests the residuary power of legislation exclusively in Parliament. Any matter not enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List falls within that residuary field.

Q18. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I : Ossification test is the final test to analyze bone fusion for estimating the age of a juvenile as per law. Statement II : Statutory documents like a birth certificate will be given precedence to determine the juvenile. In the context of the above statements under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which one of the following options is correct ?

(A) Only Statement II is true ✔
(B) Both Statements I and II are false
(C) Both Statements I and II are true
(D) Only Statement I is true

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Only Statement II is correct. The ossification test is not conclusive — it yields an age range with a recognised margin of error. Statutory documents such as a birth certificate or school record take precedence in determining age, as the statutory hierarchy for age determination reflects.

Q19. In Roman jurisprudence, the concept similar to the Rule of Law was referred to as :

(A) Jus Civile
(B) Lex Regia
(C) Jus Naturale ✔
(D) Jus Gentium

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Jus Naturale — natural law — comprised universal principles binding on all persons, the Roman analogue of the Rule of Law. Jus Civile was the law applicable to Roman citizens and Jus Gentium the law common to all peoples.

Q20. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India does not adopt a rigid separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary. Reason (R) : The constitutional framework incorporates a system of checks and balances, allowing limited functional overlap among the organs of the State. In the context of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct ? (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Both propositions are true and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. The Indian Constitution adopts a functional rather than rigid separation of powers precisely because it builds in checks and balances that permit limited overlap among the three organs.

Q21. In which of the following cases did Lord Wright observe that “the incalculable value of habeas corpus is that it enables the immediate determination of the applicant’s freedom” ?

(A) Attorney General for Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu (1983) 2 AC 629
(B) Bugdaycay v. Secretary of State for the Home Department (1987) AC 514
(C) Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs (1942) AC 284 ✔
(D) Attorney General for New South Wales v. Trethowan (1932) AC 526

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The observation is Lord Wright's in Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs (1942) AC 284, a wartime detention case in which the House of Lords considered the scope of habeas corpus against executive detention.

Q22. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to withdrawal and abandonment of suits under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 ? I. A plaintiff may withdraw or abandon a suit subject to the provisions of law. II. Institution of a fresh suit on the same cause of action requires permission of the court. III. Withdrawal of a suit without permission of the court to institute a fresh suit bars a subsequent suit on the same cause of action. IV. The court must grant permission whenever such request is made. Which of the above statements are correct ?

(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) I, II and III ✔
(C) I, III and IV
(D) II, III and IV

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Statements I, II and III are correct and reflect Order XXIII Rule 1 CPC. Statement IV is wrong: permission to institute a fresh suit is discretionary, granted only where the suit must fail on a formal defect or there is other sufficient ground — the court is under no obligation to grant it.

Q23. Which of the following statements is not an example of the eggshell skull rule as per the law of torts ?

(A) A boy kicked another from across the aisle in the classroom. It turned out that the victim had an unknown microbial condition that was irritated, and resulted in him entirely losing the use of his leg.
(B) Nervous shock cases are also consistent with this principle. The rule is that if injury from nervous shock is reasonably foreseeable to an ordinarily strong‑nerved person situated in the position of the claimant, the defendant is liable for the full extent of the shock.
(C) A man had a heart attack and died after being bruised in the chest during a rear‑end car accident.
(D) ‘A’ underwent an appendectomy in a hospital. Despite the surgery going as planned, she continued to experience abdominal pain. It was later discovered that a needle had been left inside her abdomen, leading to further surgeries and prolonged suffering. ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The eggshell-skull rule makes a wrongdoer liable for the full extent of harm even where a pre-existing vulnerability of the victim magnifies it. Option (D) involves a retained surgical needle — that is ordinary medical negligence, not a case of pre-existing susceptibility, and so is not an illustration of the rule.

Q24. Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, if a police officer‑in‑charge determines that an investigation is not warranted because the case lacks sufficient gravity, they are legally obligated to notify the informant of this decision within :

(A) 14 days ✔
(B) 7 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 24 hours

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The official key marks fourteen days. The BNSS builds fourteen-day timelines into the Section 173 scheme — the preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists is likewise to be completed within fourteen days.

Q25. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which specific provision provides the legal definition for a ‘Bailable Offence’ ?

(A) Section 2(h)
(B) Section 2(x)
(C) Section 2(c)
(D) Section 2(a) ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Section 2(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines 'bailable offence' as an offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule or made bailable by any other law, and 'non-bailable offence' as any other offence.

Q26. A, aged 80 years, executes a registered deed transferring a parcel of land to a trust with the conditions that, “The property shall be used forever for maintaining a public library and reading room for the residents of Village X. However, if at any time the property ceases to be used for this purpose, it shall revert to my heirs. Further, the income from the property shall accumulate for 50 years before being used for expansion of the library.” Which of the following statements is most accurate in law ?

(A) The entire transfer is void because the reversionary clause creates uncertainty and violates public policy.
(B) The transfer is void because it violates the rule against perpetuity and the condition of accumulation beyond permissible limits.
(C) The transfer is valid in entirety, including the accumulation clause, because transfers for public purposes are fully exempt from all perpetuity‑related restrictions.
(D) The transfer is valid as it falls within the exception for public benefit, but the accumulation clause is void to the extent it exceeds statutory limits. ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The transfer is saved by Section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which exempts transfers for the public benefit from the rule against perpetuity. The direction to accumulate income for fifty years, however, exceeds the limits in Section 17 and is void to that extent.

Q27. A Magistrate of the Second Class passes a sentence of one month’s imprisonment. The accused wants to appeal. Based on the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which of the following is true ?

(A) The accused is entitled to file an appeal before the Court of Session. ✔
(B) An appeal lies only if a fine was also imposed.
(C) The accused may prefer an appeal directly to the High Court.
(D) No appeal is maintainable in this specific instance.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Under Section 374(3) CrPC, an appeal from a sentence passed by a Magistrate lies to the Court of Session. The right does not depend on a fine having been imposed, and no direct appeal to the High Court is available.

Q28. Under the provisions of Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following is not a mandatory legal requirement (ingredient) to constitute the offence of ‘Abduction’ ?

(A) Compelling or inducing a person to move from one place to another
(B) The classification of the act as a “continuing offence”
(C) The employment of physical force or the use of deceitful means
(D) The person abducted must be a minor ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Age is not an ingredient of abduction. Section 362 IPC requires that a person be compelled by force, or induced by deceitful means, to go from any place — and it applies to any person, of any age. Age is an element of kidnapping under Section 361, not abduction.

Q29. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not applicable in which case ?

(A) National Company Law Tribunal
(B) Arbitral Tribunal ✔
(C) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
(D) National Green Tribunal

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies to judicial proceedings before courts and to tribunals exercising judicial functions, but not to an arbitral tribunal. Section 19 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 expressly frees the tribunal from the Code of Civil Procedure and the law of evidence.

Q30. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has introduced a specific timeframe for the delivery of a judgment after the conclusion of arguments. What is that timeframe ?

(A) Within 90 days, provided the reasons for delay are recorded
(B) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days) ✔
(C) Within 60 days from the date of reserving the order
(D) Within a strict period of 15 days

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The BNSS requires judgment to be pronounced within thirty days of the conclusion of arguments, extendable to forty-five days for reasons recorded in writing — a timeline the CrPC did not contain.

Q31. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves ?

(A) Section 125 ✔
(B) Section 320
(C) Section 144
(D) Section 107

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Section 125 CrPC provides the summary remedy for maintenance of a wife, children and parents unable to maintain themselves. Section 320 deals with compounding, Section 144 with urgent nuisance orders and Section 107 with security for keeping the peace.

Q32. Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a decree is passed against multiple defendants, one of whom was not served with summons and had no opportunity to contest, such a defendant may seek relief :

(A) Only through review before the same court.
(B) Only by filing a separate suit.
(C) By applying for setting aside the ex‑parte decree. ✔
(D) Only through an appeal against decree.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed, who was not served and had no opportunity to contest, may apply under Order IX Rule 13 CPC for the decree to be set aside. That remedy is available alongside, and is more apt than, review or appeal.

Q33. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit is instituted against a person who is subsequently found to have been wrongly impleaded as a defendant, the court may :

(A) Dismiss the suit as not maintainable.
(B) Permit substitution or addition of the proper defendant. ✔
(C) Direct the plaintiff to institute a fresh suit.
(D) Return the plaint on the ground of mis‑joinder of parties.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Under Order I Rule 10 CPC the court may at any stage, and on such terms as appear just, strike out or add parties or substitute the proper defendant. A suit is not to be dismissed merely because the wrong person has been impleaded.

Q34. Read the following statements and choose the correct option in the light of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. A dispute arises regarding jurisdiction of the arbitral tribunal. Statement I : The arbitral tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction. Statement II : A plea that the tribunal lacks jurisdiction shall be raised not later than the submission of the statement of defence, unless the arbitral tribunal permits a later plea.

(A) Only Statement I is true
(B) Both Statements I and II are true ✔
(C) Only Statement II is true
(D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Section 16 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 embodies the principle of kompetenz-kompetenz — the tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction — and requires a jurisdictional plea to be raised not later than the submission of the statement of defence.

Q35. According to Section 20 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have not agreed on the place of arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall determine it having regard to :

(A) Jurisdiction of the civil court alone.
(B) Place where the contract was executed.
(C) Circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties. ✔
(D) Location of subject matter of dispute.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Section 20(3) provides that failing agreement, the tribunal may determine the place of arbitration having regard to the circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties.

Q36. What is the year did the mandatory pre‑fitment of High Security Registration Plates (HSRP) for all new vehicles come into effect under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 ?

(A) 2023
(B) 2018
(C) 2024
(D) 2019 ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Pre-fitment of High Security Registration Plates was made mandatory for all new vehicles with effect from 1 April 2019.

Q37. According to Section 10(37), of the Income‑tax Act, 1961, compensation is received by an individual on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land which had been used for agricultural purposes by him prior to acquisition. What is the correct legal position ?

(A) It is always taxable under the Act.
(B) It is exempt, subject to fulfilment of prescribed conditions. ✔
(C) It is taxable only if it exceeds a prescribed limit.
(D) It is taxable as business income.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Section 10(37) exempts capital gains arising on the compulsory acquisition of agricultural land, subject to conditions — principally that the land was used for agricultural purposes for the two years immediately preceding the transfer and that the compensation was received on or after 1 April 2004.

Q38. “The rules of natural justice were not confined to the narrow precincts of the prevailing definition of quasi‑judicial functions.” This principle was laid down in which case ?

(A) Conway v. Rimmer (1968) A.C. 910
(B) Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) A.C. 40 ✔
(C) Maradana Mosque Trustees v. Mahmud (1967) (1) A.C. 13
(D) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India AIR 1970 SC 150

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The proposition is from Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) AC 40, in which the House of Lords restored the reach of natural justice beyond the narrow category of quasi-judicial functions. A.K. Kraipak applied the same reasoning in India.

Q39. Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance. The opinion rendered by the Court in such a reference is generally regarded as :

(A) Enforceable through contempt jurisdiction
(B) A binding precedent under Article 141
(C) Advisory in nature and not strictly binding ✔
(D) Equivalent to a decree of the Court

Answer: (C)

Explanation: An opinion under Article 143 is advisory. It is entitled to great weight and is ordinarily followed, but it is not a binding declaration of law under Article 141 and is not enforceable as a decree.

Q40. On which specific date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, officially come into force, replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?

(A) January 1, 2024
(B) July 1, 2024 ✔
(C) August 15, 2023
(D) December 25, 2023

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024, along with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.

Q41. Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, what is the current range of punishments available to a court for the offence of ‘Defamation’ ?

(A) Rigorous imprisonment for 5 years
(B) Simple imprisonment, or fine, or both, or Community Service ✔
(C) Only an apology in open court
(D) Only a fine

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Defamation under the BNS is punishable with simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both, or community service. The inclusion of community service is one of the notable innovations of the new Sanhita.

Q42. “Administrative law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action.” This definition was given by :

(A) H.W.R. Wade
(B) A.V. Dicey
(C) K.C. Davis ✔
(D) Ivor Jennings

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The definition is K.C. Davis's, from his work on administrative law. Dicey is associated with the Rule of Law, Wade with English administrative law generally, and Jennings with his critique of Dicey.

Q43. Which of the following innovative penal measures has been officially incorporated into the sentencing framework under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 ?

(A) Solitary confinement
(B) Life imprisonment without the possibility of parole
(C) Compulsory forfeiture of ancestral property
(D) Community Service ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Community service has been introduced as a form of punishment by Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 — the first time it appears in India's general penal law.

Q44. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : An ex parte decree may be set aside if the defendant satisfies the court that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing. Reason (R) : Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court must be satisfied that the summons was not duly served or that the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing. Mark your answer as : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). ✔
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Both statements are true and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Order IX Rule 13 CPC permits an ex parte decree to be set aside where the summons was not duly served or the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing.

Q45. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, stipulates that a police officer must produce a person arrested without a warrant before a Magistrate within a maximum period of 24 hours ?

(A) Section 51
(B) Section 57 ✔
(C) Section 41
(D) Section 164

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Section 57 CrPC prohibits detention of a person arrested without warrant for more than twenty-four hours without production before a Magistrate, mirroring the guarantee in Article 22(2). Section 167 governs remand thereafter.

Q46. Ajeet Singh, a famous singer, enters into a contract with Yash Aditya Music Company agreeing to perform exclusively for them for 2 years and not to perform for any other company during that period. After one year, Ajeet Singh refuses to perform for Yash Aditya Music Company and begins performing for BR Chopra & Company. Yash Aditya Music Company files a suit seeking an injunction restraining Ajeet Singh from performing for BR Chopra & Company. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 ?

(A) The court must compel Ajeet Singh to sing for Yash Aditya Music Company.
(B) Only damages can be granted.
(C) The injunction may be granted to enforce the negative covenant. ✔
(D) The injunction must be refused because contracts of personal service cannot be enforced.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Although a contract of personal service cannot be specifically enforced, Section 42 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 permits the court to grant an injunction to enforce the negative covenant — here, the promise not to sing for anyone else — even though the affirmative promise is unenforceable. This is the principle of Lumley v. Wagner.

Q47. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India forms the primary legislative basis for the Parliament enacting the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 ?

(A) Article 253 ✔
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 233
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Article 253 empowers Parliament to legislate for the whole or any part of India to implement international agreements. The Air Act, 1981 was enacted on that footing, following the Stockholm Conference of 1972, notwithstanding that the subject touches the State List.

Q48. The Information Technology Act, 2000, distinguishes between civil liability and criminal liability in cases of misuse of computer resources. In which of the following situations would such conduct attract criminal punishment rather than mere compensation ?

(A) When the affected party chooses to initiate criminal proceedings
(B) When the act is done dishonestly or fraudulently in addition to unauthorised access ✔
(C) When the damage to computer resources exceeds a prescribed monetary limit
(D) When access to a computer system is without permission, irrespective of intent

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The distinction turns on intent. Section 43 attaches civil liability to unauthorised access and provides compensation; Section 66 converts the same acts into an offence where they are done dishonestly or fraudulently. Neither the victim's choice of forum nor the quantum of loss is the test.

Q49. Which of the following is not stated in Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with regard to a certificate to verify the authenticity of electronic evidence ?

(A) Signed by both the person in charge of the computer or communication device and an expert, with the certificate adhering to the format prescribed in the Adhiniyam’s Schedule.
(B) The form specified in the Schedule requires that electronic evidence be accompanied by a ‘hash value’.
(C) Qualification of an expert. ✔
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam requires the certificate to be signed by the person in charge of the device and an expert, in the form set out in the Schedule, which calls for the hash value of the record. It does not prescribe the qualifications of the expert.

Q50. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : The respondent was engaged as a Safai Karamchari in a charitable trust. The dispute originated when he was terminated due to repeated absence from duty. The trust challenged the award on the grounds that it was not an ‘industry’ under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and therefore the worker was not a workman, making Section 25‑F inapplicable. Reason (R) : The trust engaged in multifarious activities including commercial ventures and hired employees for commercial and charitable activities in an organized manner with proper remuneration. In the context of the above Assertion and Reason under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which one of the following is correct ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). ✔
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Both statements are true and the Reason explains the Assertion. Applying the triple test in Bangalore Water Supply v. A. Rajappa, a charitable trust carrying on organised activity with hired employees and paid remuneration falls within 'industry' under Section 2(j), so the protection of Section 25-F applies.

Q51. In accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a court, while examining pleadings, finds certain averments to be unnecessary and capable of prejudicing or delaying the fair trial, the court, in such a case, may :

(A) Strike out such pleadings at any stage of proceedings. ✔
(B) Direct amendment only after trial begins.
(C) Ignore such pleadings without passing any order.
(D) Reject the plaint in entirety.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Order VI Rule 16 CPC permits the court, at any stage of the proceedings, to strike out or amend any matter in a pleading which is unnecessary, scandalous, frivolous or vexatious, or which may prejudice, embarrass or delay the fair trial of the suit.

Q52. During an India – Country X war, India declares X an enemy. A (an Indian citizen) enters into a contract to supply medicines to B (a citizen of X) via a neutral intermediary and a bank. Which of the following is most accurate under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 ?

(A) Valid – goods are humanitarian and payment is via a neutral country.
(B) Valid unless the Government expressly cancels.
(C) Voidable – only the Government of India can cancel.
(D) Void – trading with an enemy in war is prohibited and is against public policy. ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A contract to trade with an alien enemy during war is void. The object is unlawful as opposed to public policy under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, and routing performance through a neutral intermediary does not cure the illegality.

Q53. Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with “fast track merger”. What is the time duration and the concerned authority for approval ?

(A) 60‑90 Days, NCLT
(B) 1 Year, Regional Director
(C) 45‑90 Days, NCLAT
(D) 60‑90 Days, Regional Director ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Under Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, a fast track merger between small companies or between a holding company and its wholly-owned subsidiary is approved by the Regional Director exercising Central Government powers, and not by the NCLT, within the timeline indicated.

Q54. A contracts with B to construct a cold storage facility for ₹ 50 lakh within 6 months. After the expiry of the time period, B fails to perform the contract. A immediately hires C to complete the construction at ₹ 60 lakh and later files a suit against B claiming ₹ 10 lakh as the additional cost incurred. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 ?

(A) A can recover only if the court first declares B guilty of breach.
(B) A must sue only for damages and not substituted performance.
(C) A can recover ₹ 10 lakh because B breached the contract. ✔
(D) A cannot recover the cost because A did not give B prior notice.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A is entitled to recover the additional ten lakh rupees as the loss naturally arising from B's breach. The Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018 introduced substituted performance in Section 20, which allows the aggrieved party to have the contract performed by a third party and recover the cost from the party in breach.

Q55. A mandatory PUC Certificate is provided under which Section and Rule ?

(A) Section 190(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 115 and 116 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 ✔
(B) Section 177(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 117 and 118 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989
(C) Section 160(1) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 109 and 110 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989
(D) Section 120(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and Rules 122 and 123 of the Centre Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The requirement of a valid Pollution Under Control certificate flows from Section 190(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 read with Rules 115 and 116 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, which prescribe emission standards and the certificate regime.

Q56. Judicial intervention in arbitration proceedings is limited under Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In which of the following situations may a court intervene ?

(A) When both parties request supervision of proceedings.
(B) When procedural irregularity is alleged without specific provision under the Act.
(C) When the court considers the award unjust on facts.
(D) When the Act expressly permits such intervention. ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that notwithstanding anything in any other law, no judicial authority shall intervene except where so provided in Part I. Dissatisfaction with the merits, alleged irregularity, or the parties' joint request are not grounds for intervention.

Q57. Which of the following is not a document as per the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?

(A) Private papers ✔
(B) Caricature
(C) Map
(D) Inscription

Answer: (A)

Explanation: 'Private papers' is not one of the categories in the definition of document under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which illustrates the term by reference to writing, printed or photographed words, maps, inscriptions and caricatures, and electronic records.

Q58. A State Government plans to acquire 50 acres of Scheduled Tribes (ST) land for an industrial park. As per the applicable law, the following steps are proposed : (i) Preliminary notification (ii) Social Impact Assessment (SIA) (iii) Gram Sabha consultation/consent (iv) Final notification Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Final notification can be issued without Gram Sabha, with owner consent only.
(B) Final notification can come before SIA but after preliminary notification.
(C) SIA and Gram Sabha consultation/consent are mandatory for ST land; acquisition can’t proceed without consent. ✔
(D) Gram Sabha is advisory only; consent is not needed for public projects.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Where Scheduled Tribe land is sought to be acquired, both the Social Impact Assessment and the consent of the Gram Sabha are mandatory under the 2013 Act read with PESA. The Gram Sabha's role is not merely advisory, and acquisition cannot proceed without it.

Q59. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, ‘Forfeiture of Property’ is listed as a punishment. In which specific case is this most commonly applied ?

(A) Organized Crime (Section 111) ✔
(B) Offences involving simple hurt or minor physical injury
(C) Cases of rash or negligent driving
(D) Instances of minor or petty theft

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Forfeiture of property is most closely associated with Section 111 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which deals with organised crime and provides for attachment and forfeiture of property derived from such activity, alongside imprisonment and fine.

Q60. According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person intending to apply for ‘Plea Bargaining’ must do so within how many days following the formal framing of charges ?

(A) 7 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 30 days ✔
(D) 60 days

Answer: (C)

Explanation: An application for plea bargaining must be filed within thirty days from the date of framing of charge. This is a change from the CrPC scheme, which fixed the stage differently, and it places a real premium on an early election.

Q61. The five Golden Principles with respect to Circumstantial Evidence were laid down in which Supreme Court Judgment ?

(A) Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, 1984 AIR 1622 ✔
(B) Vasa Chandrasekhar Rao v. Ponna Satyanarayana & Anr., 2000 AIR SC 2138
(C) Dudh Nath Pandey v. State of U.P., 1981 SCC (2) 166
(D) Dr. Sunil Clifford Daniel v. State of Punjab (2012) 11 SCC 205

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The five golden principles — the panchsheel of circumstantial evidence — were laid down in Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra (1984): the circumstances must be fully established, consistent only with guilt, of a conclusive nature, exclude every other hypothesis, and form a complete chain.

Q62. Which of the following does not fall under the framework of presumption under Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?

(A) Conclusive proof
(B) Unassailable proof ✔
(C) May be
(D) Shall presume

Answer: (B)

Explanation: 'Unassailable proof' is not a statutory expression. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, like the Evidence Act before it, works with three presumptive categories — 'may presume', 'shall presume' and 'conclusive proof'.

Q63. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : Income‑tax is levied on the total income of a person for the previous year. Reason (R) : Income earned during the previous year is assessed to tax in the immediately succeeding assessment year under the Income‑tax Act, 1961. Mark answer as : (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). ✔
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Both statements are true and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, income of the previous year is charged to tax in the assessment year immediately following it, which is precisely why tax is levied on the previous year's total income.

Q64. Under the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872, between which hours must a marriage generally be solemnized ?

(A) Between seven in the morning and eight in the evening
(B) Between five in the morning and six in the evening
(C) Between six in the morning and seven in the evening ✔
(D) Between six in the morning and nine in the evening

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Section 10 of the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872 requires a marriage to be solemnised between six in the morning and seven in the evening, subject to the special licence exceptions provided in the Act.

Q65. A, an 18‑year‑old adult of sound mind, executes a written instrument in favour of B stating, “I promise to pay B ₹ 75,000 on 1st April next year.” A is fully competent, has signed the note, and the instrument contains all essential elements of a promissory note. B sues A for recovery after 1st April when A defaults. Examine the correct legal position.

(A) The promissory note is valid; A is liable to pay B. ✔
(B) The promissory note is voidable at A’s option since A is only 18 years of age.
(C) The promissory note is valid only if a third party signs as witness.
(D) The promissory note is void because it does not mention the consideration.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A person of eighteen years has attained majority under the Indian Majority Act, 1875 and is competent to contract under Section 11 of the Contract Act. The note is therefore valid and enforceable; consideration is presumed under Section 118(a) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, and no attesting witness is required.

Q66. Under which specific provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, has the definition of a ‘Terrorist Act’ been formally integrated into India’s general penal legislation for the first time ?

(A) Section 113 ✔
(B) Section 152
(C) Section 109
(D) Section 121

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Section 113 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines a terrorist act — the first time such a definition has been placed in India's general penal code rather than left to special legislation such as the UAPA.

Q67. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : The right to privacy has been judicially recognised as an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Reason (R) : Privacy is expressly enumerated as a separate Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution of India. In the context of the Constitution of India and the decision in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017) 10 SCC 1, which one of the following is correct ? (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false. ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Assertion is true and the Reason is false. K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) held privacy to be implicit in Article 21 and in other freedoms; it is not separately enumerated anywhere in Part III. That is the whole significance of the decision.

Q68. Under constitutional jurisprudence in India, repeated re‑promulgation of Ordinances without placing them before the Legislature was described by the Supreme Court as a “fraud on the Constitution” in which decision ?

(A) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 564
(B) Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1974 SC 2192
(C) Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar, (2017) 3 SCC 1
(D) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579 ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987) condemned the Bihar practice of re-promulgating ordinances year after year without placing them before the Legislature as a 'fraud on the Constitution'. Krishna Kumar Singh (2017) later built on it.

Q69. The Supreme Court of India in Harish Chandra Tiwari v. Baiju, (2002) 2 SCC 67, while considering the appropriate punishment for misappropriation of a client’s money by an advocate, held that :

(A) A monetary penalty equal to double the amount misappropriated is the appropriate sanction under the Act.
(B) Reprimand is the appropriate punishment for a first‑time misappropriation, since removal from the roll would be disproportionate.
(C) Suspension from practice for a period of five years is the standard sanction for misappropriation of client funds.
(D) Misappropriation of a client’s money constitutes one of the gravest forms of professional misconduct and ordinarily warrants removal of the advocate’s name from the State roll. ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: In Harish Chandra Tiwari v. Baiju (2002) the Supreme Court held that misappropriation of a client's money is among the gravest forms of professional misconduct, and that the appropriate punishment ordinarily is removal of the advocate's name from the State roll, not a reprimand or suspension.

Q70. According to Section 56(2)(x), of the Income‑tax Act, 1961, if an individual receives a sum of money, without consideration, from a person other than a relative, and the amount exceeds the prescribed limit. What is the correct legal position ?

(A) It is taxable under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. ✔
(B) It is fully exempt from tax.
(C) It is treated as a capital receipt and is not taxable.
(D) It is taxable only if received in cash.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Under Section 56(2)(x), a sum of money received without consideration from a person other than a relative, where the aggregate exceeds the prescribed threshold, is chargeable under the head 'Income from Other Sources'. The mode of receipt is immaterial.

Q71. Under the Constitution of India, Parliament enacts legislation to implement India’s obligations under an international environmental agreement. The subject ordinarily falls within the State List and no resolution under Article 252 has been passed. The source of Parliament’s competence would be :

(A) Article 250
(B) Article 253 ✔
(C) Article 249
(D) Article 252

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Article 253 is the source of competence. It permits Parliament to legislate on any matter, including one in the State List, for implementing an international agreement, and it operates independently of the resolution mechanisms in Articles 249 and 252.

Q72. Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, in which of the following scenarios does the “Right of Private Defence of the Body” extend to the extent of voluntarily causing death to the assailant ?

(A) An assault committed with the specific intention of kidnapping or abducting a person ✔
(B) A case of theft where the value of the stolen property exceeds ₹ 10,000
(C) An act of criminal trespass occurring on open, vacant land
(D) A simple assault committed without the use of a weapon

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Under Section 100 IPC the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death where the assault is of one of the enumerated kinds — which includes an assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting. Ordinary theft, trespass on open land, or a simple assault do not attract that extended right.

Q73. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : Allegations have been made by the Minority Shareholders that ABC’s promoters sold the optionally convertible preference shares and redeemable preference shares to a trust controlled by ABC’s promoters at prices significantly below their fair market value, thereby causing a financial loss to ABC and its shareholders. What is the recourse for minority shareholders under law ? Conclusion I : The Minority Shareholders can file for class action under Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013, seeking directions from NCLT to either reverse the sale of optionally convertible preference shares and redeemable preference shares or to compensate the Minority Shareholders. Conclusion II : The aggrieved members may proceed individually to protect their rights against acts of oppression or mismanagement under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(B) Only Conclusion I follows
(C) Only Conclusion II follows
(D) Both Conclusions I and II follow ✔

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Both conclusions follow. Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013 permits a class action before the NCLT seeking, among other reliefs, restraint or compensation; and Section 241 separately allows members to apply for relief against oppression and mismanagement, subject to the thresholds in Section 244.

Q74. The adoption of an Ombudsman‑type institution in India was first recommended by which of the following ?

(A) Santhanam Committee, 1964
(B) Administrative Reforms Commission, 2005
(C) Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966 ✔
(D) India Against Corruption Movement, 2011

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966, chaired initially by Morarji Desai, first recommended an Ombudsman-type institution for India in the form of the Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in the States.

Q75. X takes a loan of ₹ 10,00,000 from Bank A. Y signs a contract as surety, promising to pay the bank if X defaults. After 3 months, Bank A agrees to reduce the interest rate and extends the repayment period by 6 months without informing Y. Subsequently, X defaults on the loan. Which of the following statements correctly describes Y’s liability under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 ?

(A) Y is liable only if the bank sues the principal debtor first, regardless of the modification.
(B) Y is not liable at all because the principal debtor defaulted after the contract modification.
(C) Y is partially discharged from liability because Bank A’s modification increased the risk to Y without his consent. ✔
(D) Y is fully liable for the entire loan because a surety is always liable once the principal debtor defaults.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Under Section 133 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, any variance in the terms of the contract between the creditor and the principal debtor, made without the surety's consent, discharges the surety as to transactions subsequent to the variance. Extending time and altering the rate without informing Y therefore affects Y's liability.

Q76. Whether a landowner who enters into a Joint Development Agreement with a builder, contributing land in exchange for 50% of the developed property and a monetary deposit can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 alleging construction defects and delay ? Which of the following statements is most accurate ?

(A) The landowner is a consumer as he did not construct himself.
(B) The landowner is a consumer unless profit motive is proven.
(C) The landowner is not a consumer as the transaction constitutes a commercial joint venture. ✔
(D) The landowner is a consumer if defects exist, irrespective of the nature of the transaction.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A landowner who contributes land under a Joint Development Agreement in exchange for a share of the developed property is engaged in a commercial joint venture, not the purchase of a service for personal use. He therefore falls outside the definition of 'consumer' in Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Q77. Pursuant to the definition provided in Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following constitutes an essential element of the offence of ‘Theft’ ?

(A) The movement of movable property out of a person’s possession without their consent ✔
(B) The requirement that the property must be removed from a public location exclusively
(C) The employment of physical force or criminal violence against a person
(D) The unauthorized movement of immovable property without the owner’s consent

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Section 378 IPC requires a dishonest intention to take movable property out of the possession of a person without that person's consent, coupled with moving it. Force is an ingredient of robbery, not theft; and immovable property cannot be the subject of theft.

Q78. Under the constitutional framework of India, the Supreme Court gradually relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi, thereby allowing public‑spirited individuals to approach the Court for enforcement of fundamental rights of others. This development is most closely associated with :

(A) The evolution of Public Interest Litigation. ✔
(B) Judicial review of administrative action.
(C) Enforcement of fundamental rights through individual petitions alone.
(D) Expansion of writ jurisdiction under Article 226.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The relaxation of locus standi, permitting a public-spirited person to move the court on behalf of those unable to do so themselves, is the defining feature of the evolution of Public Interest Litigation, established in S.P. Gupta and the line of cases that followed.

Q79. Ramesh’s job contract with M/s XYZ bars him from joining any rival software firm in India for three years post‑resignation. But after resigning within three years, he joins a competitor. XYZ company filed a suit to enforce the restrictive clause. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what is the legal position ?

(A) Void – restrains lawful profession after employment ends. ✔
(B) Valid – Ramesh agreed voluntarily.
(C) Valid – protects the employer’s business interest.
(D) Valid – three years is a reasonable period.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The clause is void under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. A restraint operating after the employment has ended is a restraint of lawful profession and is void, however reasonable its duration may appear. Restraints operating during the subsistence of employment stand on a different footing.

Q80. Under Rule 8 of the Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette framed by the Bar Council of India, an advocate is prohibited from appearing before any court, tribunal or authority for or against an organisation or institution of which he is a member of its :

(A) Advisory Committee
(B) Sub‑Committee
(C) Executive Committee ✔
(D) General Body

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Rule 8 of the Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette bars an advocate from appearing for or against an organisation of which he is a member of the Executive Committee. Mere membership of the general body does not attract the bar.

Q81. Which of the following is not included in “The Industrial Relations Code, 2020” ?

(A) Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDR Act) ✔
(B) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(C) Trade Unions Act, 1926
(D) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 consolidates the Trade Unions Act, 1926, the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 and the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 is not among them.

Q82. Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the maximum fine that may be imposed for printing or publishing matter in contravention of provisions relating to in‑camera proceedings ?

(A) Fine up to five thousand rupees
(B) Fine up to one thousand rupees ✔
(C) Fine up to two thousand rupees
(D) Fine up to five hundred rupees

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Section 46 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954 prescribes a fine which may extend to one thousand rupees for printing or publishing matter in contravention of the provisions relating to proceedings held in camera.

Q83. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : The Bar Council of India derives its rule‑making power from Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act, 1961, which authorises it to frame rules governing professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates. Rule 20 framed thereunder categorically bars an advocate from stipulating for, or receiving, any fee whose quantum is dependent upon the outcome of litigation, or from entering into any arrangement to share in its proceeds. An advocate who contravenes this Rule is liable to be proceeded against under Section 35 of the Act. Conclusion I : An advocate may lawfully enter into an outcome‑linked fee arrangement so long as the client’s written consent is obtained prior to the engagement. Conclusion II : An advocate who violates the prohibition on contingency‑based fees may face disciplinary action under the Advocates Act, 1961. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Only Conclusion II follows ✔
(B) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(C) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(D) Only Conclusion I follows

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Only Conclusion II follows. Rule 20 of the Bar Council of India Rules is an absolute prohibition on contingency fees; the client's consent cannot validate what the Rule forbids. Contravention exposes the advocate to disciplinary proceedings under Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961.

Q84. Under the Patents Act, 1970, a patent is granted to an inventor in India. Which of the following correctly reflects a limitation on the patentee’s rights under the law ?

(A) The invention cannot be used by the Government without permission
(B) The patent becomes void if used by a government authority
(C) The Government may use the invention for its own purposes without the consent of the patentee ✔
(D) The patentee loses all rights once the invention is used by the Government

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Section 100 of the Patents Act, 1970 permits the Central Government, or any person authorised by it, to use a patented invention for the purposes of Government without the patentee's consent, subject to payment of remuneration. The patent is neither avoided nor forfeited by such use.

Q85. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, the term ‘electronic record’ includes which of the following ? I. Data stored in digital form II. Image or sound stored or transmitted electronically III. Information generated in microfilm or computer‑generated microfiche IV. Information recorded only on paper without electronic processing Which of the above are correct ?

(A) I and II
(B) I, II and III ✔
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) II, III and IV

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Under Section 2(1)(t) of the Information Technology Act, 2000, an 'electronic record' covers data, records, images and sound stored, received or sent in electronic form, and includes micro film and computer-generated micro fiche. Information recorded only on paper (IV) is excluded.

Q86. A executes a document in favour of B stating, “I hereby sell my house to B for ₹ 5,00,000. If I repay the amount within 3 years, B shall retransfer the property to me; otherwise, the sale shall become absolute.” The condition is included in the same document. A fails to repay within 3 years. B claims absolute ownership. Examine the correct legal position under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

(A) It is a mortgage by conditional sale; B must seek foreclosure through court. ✔
(B) It is a lease with an option to repurchase.
(C) The transaction is void for uncertainty.
(D) It is an outright sale; B becomes absolute owner automatically.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: This is a mortgage by conditional sale under Section 58(c) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 — the ostensible sale carries a condition of retransfer on repayment, and, as the proviso requires, that condition is embodied in the same document. B cannot take absolute title automatically; he must sue for foreclosure under Section 67.

Q87. Under the scheme of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where proceedings are pending before a competent civil court, and an application is made seeking transfer of the case from one district to another district within the state, such transfer may be ordered :

(A) Only after conclusion of trial.
(B) Only by the court in which the suit is pending.
(C) By the High Court. ✔
(D) Only upon agreement between the parties.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Transfer of a suit from a court in one district to a court in another district within the State is ordered by the High Court under Section 24 CPC. A District Court's transfer power operates only among courts subordinate to it within its own district.

Q88. Under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, ‘Default Bail’ (or statutory bail) is a right of the accused if the investigation is not completed :

(A) Upon the expiry of 120 days specifically for offences against the State.
(B) After 60 days or 90 days, contingent upon the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence. ✔
(C) Immediately following the completion of the initial 15‑day police custody.
(D) After a fixed period of 30 days for all types of offences.

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Under Section 167(2) CrPC, default bail accrues on the expiry of ninety days where the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for not less than ten years, and sixty days in other cases. The period thus depends on the maximum punishment prescribed.

Q89. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, within how many months from the date of marriage must dowry received before marriage be transferred to the woman ?

(A) Within five months
(B) Within three months ✔
(C) Within six months
(D) Within seven months

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Section 6 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 requires dowry received before marriage to be transferred to the woman within three months from the date of the marriage. Failure to do so is itself an offence.

Q90. Under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, what condition applies for appointing a guardian for a married female minor ?

(A) The parents must apply jointly for such appointment
(B) The husband must be considered unfit by the Court ✔
(C) The husband must be declared legally incompetent
(D) The husband must consent to such appointment

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Under Section 19 of the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, the court is not authorised to appoint a guardian of the person of a married female minor unless it is of opinion that her husband is unfit to be her guardian. The husband's consent or a declaration of legal incompetence is not the test.

Q91. As per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, what are one‑sided agreements ?

(A) Unfair trade practices ✔
(B) Quasi contracts
(C) Unilateral contracts
(D) Unconscionable ✔

Answer: (A,D)

Explanation: The Bar Council's final key accepts both (A) and (D) for this question. One-sided agreements are addressed under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 both as an unfair trade practice and through the concept of an unfair or unconscionable contract in Section 2(46), which targets terms that cause significant change in the rights of a consumer.

Q92. An assessee pays a medical insurance premium for himself and his family and claims a deduction while computing total income. What is the correct position under the Income Tax Act, 1961 ?

(A) Deduction is allowed subject to prescribed limits and conditions ✔
(B) Deduction is allowed only for senior citizens
(C) Deduction is not permitted in such cases
(D) Deduction is allowed without any monetary limit

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A deduction for medical insurance premium is available under Section 80D of the Income-tax Act, 1961, subject to prescribed monetary limits and conditions. It is not confined to senior citizens, nor is it unlimited.

Q93. Under Section 35B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a party fails to take a step required by the court on the date fixed, the court may :

(A) Impose costs as a precondition for allowing further prosecution. ✔
(B) Dismiss the suit.
(C) Proceed with the suit without imposing any condition.
(D) Grant adjournment as a matter of right.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Section 35B CPC empowers the court to impose costs for causing delay, and provides that payment of those costs is a condition precedent to the defaulting party's further prosecution of the suit or defence. Dismissal is not the prescribed consequence.

Q94. Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, what is now a mandatory requirement for the process of search and seizure conducted by the police ?

(A) The documentation of the entire search and seizure process via audio‑video electronic recording ✔
(B) The presence of at least five local residents as independent witnesses
(C) The presence of a Judicial Magistrate during the search
(D) The acquisition of a signed written confession from the occupant of the premises

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Section 105 of the BNSS makes audio-video electronic recording of the entire search and seizure process mandatory, and requires the recording to be forwarded to the Magistrate without delay. It is among the most significant procedural safeguards introduced by the new Sanhita.

Q95. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which situation makes the consent of a wife unnecessary for adoption ?

(A) She refuses consent due to personal disagreement.
(B) She has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion. ✔
(C) She is living separately without legal separation.
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Under the proviso to Section 7 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, the wife's consent is not required where she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion, has finally renounced the world, or has been declared by a court of competent jurisdiction to be of unsound mind. Mere refusal or separate residence is not enough.

Q96. Under the scheme of the Constitution of India, once a Proclamation under Article 352 is in operation, Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List by virtue of :

(A) Article 356
(B) Article 250 ✔
(C) Article 249
(D) Article 360

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Article 250 empowers Parliament, while a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 is in operation, to make laws for the whole or any part of India with respect to matters in the State List. Article 249 requires a Rajya Sabha resolution and operates independently of an Emergency.

Q97. Which of the following options correctly states the composition of a Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council as prescribed under Section 9(1) of the Advocates Act, 1961 ?

(A) Five members — all co‑opted from advocates having not less than ten years’ standing at the Bar.
(B) Five members — three elected by the Council and two co‑opted senior advocates from outside the Council.
(C) Three members — two elected from the Council’s membership and one co‑opted advocate possessing the prescribed qualifications, who is not a member of the Council. ✔
(D) Three members — all elected by the Council, with the most junior member serving as Chairman.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Under Section 9(1) of the Advocates Act, 1961, a Disciplinary Committee consists of three persons — two elected by the Council from among its members, and one co-opted advocate possessing the prescribed qualifications who is not a member of the Council. The senior-most advocate presides.

Q98. In the context of the Constitution of India, a pension scheme differentiates between employees retiring before and after a specified cut‑off date. Those excluded challenge the classification as arbitrary. The constitutional issue would primarily attract :

(A) Legislative competence of the State
(B) Article 14 and the principle of classification ✔
(C) Doctrine of eclipse
(D) Doctrine of severability

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A pension scheme drawing a line between employees retiring before and after a cut-off date is tested against Article 14 and the doctrine of reasonable classification — whether the differentia is intelligible and bears a rational nexus to the object. This is the ground on which D.S. Nakara v. Union of India was decided.

Q99. Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules Uttarakhand, 2025, when is an application for declaration of legal heir(s) forwarded to the Registrar General ?

(A) After ten days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action
(B) After thirty days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action
(C) After fifteen days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action ✔
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules, Uttarakhand, 2025, an application for declaration of legal heirs is forwarded to the Registrar General if the Registrar does not act within fifteen days of its receipt.

Q100. Regarding the offence of ‘Criminal Conspiracy’ as defined under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following statements is legally accurate ?

(A) The mere agreement between parties is sufficient to constitute the offence if the intended crime is punishable by death or rigorous imprisonment. ✔
(B) It is a substantive offence that is legally barred from being charged in conjunction with other substantive crimes.
(C) A solitary individual’s mere intention to commit a crime, even without an agreement with others, is sufficient for a conviction.
(D) A minimum of five persons must participate to satisfy the legal definition. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Under Section 120A IPC the bare agreement is sufficient where the object is to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for two years or upwards. Only where the agreement is to do a lawful act by unlawful means, or the offence is of a lesser grade, is an overt act in pursuance of the agreement additionally required.

How to use this after one pass

Go back through only the questions you got wrong and write the section number next to each one. You will find they cluster — most candidates lose the same twelve to fifteen marks in the same two or three statutes. That cluster is your syllabus for the next week; the rest of the paper is not.

Do not memorise these hundred answers. The paper will not repeat. What repeats is the structure of the questions: which Act, which stage of proceeding, which limitation period, which forum. Learn the structure and the next paper reads the same.

Disclaimer: The question paper reproduced here is AIBE XXI, Set D (English), as conducted by the Bar Council of India. The answers are as per the Final Answer Key published by the Bar Council of India on 10 July 2026. The explanations are the author's own analysis and are provided for study purposes only. In case of any conflict, the official answer key of the Bar Council of India shall prevail. This post is not legal advice and does not create any advocate-client relationship. Lawizard is not affiliated with the Bar Council of India. Candidates are advised to verify all particulars from the official website of the Bar Council of India. Please read our Disclaimer for more details.

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