Compiled by Akinchan Aggarwal, Advocate — B.A. (Hons.) Gold Medalist, LL.B. (University Rank 2), LL.M. (Dispute Resolution), UGC–NET, Ph.D. (Pursuing)
The National Testing Agency released the provisional answer keys for UGC-NET June 2026 on 16 August 2026, covering 84 subjects, along with candidates' recorded responses and question papers. Law is among them.
Set out below is the complete Paper II (Law) question paper — all 100 questions with all four options and the correct response marked against the provisional key, followed by a one-glance answer grid and an analysis of how the paper was actually built.
Time-critical: the objection window closes tonight.
Challenges to the provisional key are open from 16 August to 18 August 2026, and the deadline is 11:59 PM on 18 August 2026. The fee is Rs. 200 per question challenged, and NTA has stated that the fee is refunded in full if the challenge is accepted by the subject experts. If you intend to contest any answer below, do it today — no challenge will be entertained after the window closes, and the key is finalised on the basis of what is received within it.
Key Dates and Facts
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Examination | UGC-NET June 2026 |
| Paper | Paper II — Law (Subject Code 58) |
| Provisional answer key released | 16 August 2026 |
| Subjects covered | 84 subjects (English, Commerce and Sociology notified separately the same day) |
| Also released with the key | Candidate recorded responses and question papers |
| Challenge window | 16 August to 18 August 2026 |
| Last date and time | 11:59 PM, 18 August 2026 |
| Challenge fee | Rs. 200 per question |
| Refund | Fee refunded in full where the challenge is accepted by subject experts |
| Official portal | ugcnet.nta.nic.in |
| Total questions in Paper II | 100, all compulsory |
| Marks | 2 marks per correct answer — total 200 |
| Negative marking | None |
How to Calculate Your Score
UGC-NET has no negative marking, so the arithmetic is simple:
- Count your correct responses against the grid below.
- Multiply by 2. That is your Paper II raw score out of 200.
- Add your Paper II score to your Paper I score (100 marks) for a total out of 300.
- Because there is no negative marking, an unattempted question and a wrong question cost you exactly the same. Nothing is deducted for guessing.
One caution. Do not treat this as your final score. If any answer is revised or a question is dropped after the objection window, NTA recalculates for all candidates. Where a question is dropped, marks are ordinarily granted to all candidates who attempted the paper; where a key is corrected, the revised key applies to everyone. Cut-offs are declared later and are category and subject specific.
Answer Key at a Glance — All 100 Answers
Correct option numbers as per the provisional key. Use this grid to mark your response sheet quickly, then read the full question below for anything you want to verify or challenge.
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2 | 3 | 4 | 1 | 3 | 3 | 4 | 2 | 3 | 2 |
| 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| 4 | 2 | 3 | 1 | 3 | 4 | 3 | 4 | 2 | 2 |
| 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| 3 | 3 | 1 | 1 | 3 | 3 | 1 | 2 | 1 | 3 |
| 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| 3 | 1 | 3 | 4 | 4 | 1 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 2 |
| 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| 4 | 1 | 4 | 3 | 1 | 2 | 1 | 4 | 2 | 3 |
| 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| 2 | 3 | 3 | 4 | 1 | 3 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 4 |
| 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| 1 | 1 | 3 | 2 | 1 | 3 | 2 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 3 | 2 | 3 | 1 | 4 |
| 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| 4 | 3 | 1 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 2 | 1 | 3 | 4 |
| 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| 3 | 3 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 1 | 3 | 3 | 2 |
What the Paper Actually Looked Like
Two patterns are worth recording, because both are useful for anyone preparing for the next cycle.
1. Distribution of correct options
| Correct option | Number of questions | Share |
|---|---|---|
| Option (1) | 24 | 24% |
| Option (2) | 25 | 25% |
| Option (3) | 33 | 33% |
| Option (4) | 18 | 18% |
The spread is uneven — option (3) carries a third of the paper and option (4) fewer than a fifth. This is not a guessing strategy, and nobody should choose an answer on the strength of it. It is worth knowing only for the opposite reason: if you find yourself having marked (4) twenty-five or thirty times, that is a signal to re-read, because the pattern of a real NTA paper rarely runs that way.
2. Question formats
| Format | Count |
|---|---|
| Direct single-line questions | 58 |
| Match List I with List II | 16 |
| Arrange / sequence questions | 16 |
| Multi-statement (A to E) | 10 |
The takeaway is a preparation point, not a trivia point. Only 58 of the 100 questions were straightforward single-line recall. The remaining 42 were composite — matching lists, arranging items in sequence, or evaluating four or five separate statements and selecting the correct combination. A composite question cannot be answered from a half-remembered fact; you must know every limb, because one wrong limb eliminates the option. Candidates who prepare by memorising isolated points tend to lose marks precisely here, and it is where the paper does most of its filtering.
Before you challenge a question.
At Rs. 200 a question, a scattergun challenge is expensive and rarely succeeds. Challenges are accepted where the key is demonstrably wrong — a misquoted section number, a case attributed to the wrong court, a statement that the bare Act contradicts. Prepare the authority first: the bare provision, the reported citation, or the official text. A challenge supported by a section reference or a law report has a far better prospect than one that merely asserts a different answer. And remember that the fee comes back if the challenge is accepted, so a well-founded objection costs you nothing but the effort.
Complete Question Paper with Answers
All 100 questions of Paper II (Law) with all four options. The correct response as per the provisional key is stated below each question.
1. The System of 'Droit Administrative' evolved in which of the following jurisdiction?
(1) England
(2) France
(3) USA
(4) Germany
Answer: (2) France
2. The 'Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle' are a part of Customary International Law and part of Indian domestic law was laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?
(1) Kinkari Devi v. State (1987)
(2) Indian Council for Envrio-Legal Action v. UOI (1996)
(3) Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996)
(4) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP (1985)
Answer: (3) Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996)
3. Which of the following Section of the Patent Act, 1970 deals with 'inventions relating to atomic energy'?
(1) Section 34
(2) Section 24
(3) Section 14
(4) Section 4
Answer: (4) Section 4
4. Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below: LIST I LIST II A. Muwajjal Mahr I. Specified Dower B. Mahi-i-Musamma II. Customary Dower C. Muajjal Mahr III. Deferred Dower D. Mahr-i-Misl IV. Prompt Dower
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Answer: (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
5. Consider the following statement, relating to the State parties to ICCPR under Article 13(2), of ICCPR, 1996 A. Primary education shall be optional and free for all. B. Secondary education in its different from shall be made generally available and accessible to all. C. Fundamental education shall be encourage or intensified for those who have not received or completed the whole period of primary education. D. The material conditions of teaching staff shall be continuously improve. E. Right to education shall promote scientific progress, fellowship and affirmative action programme. Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) B, C, D and E only
Answer: (3) B, C and D only
6. The legal maxims "In Pari Delicto" refer to :
(1) A mad man has no will.
(2) The crime carries the persons.
(3) In equal fault.
(4) An act done by me against my will.
Answer: (3) In equal fault.
7. Consider the following statement under Right to Education under Article 26 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948. A. Elementary education shall be optional. B. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available. C. Education shall be free at elementary and fundamental stages. D. Higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of Merit. E. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) A, B, C and D only
(4) B, C, D and E only
Answer: (4) B, C, D and E only
8. Consider the following statement relating to Uniform Civil Code under the Constitution of India. A. Article 44 mandate State of secure for all person, a Uniform Civil Code. B. Article 44 mandate State to secure for the citizen of India, a Uniform Civil Code throughout India. C. In Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, the Court ruled that Muslim husband as liable to pay maintenance to the divorced wife upto iddat period D. In Danial Latifi v. UOI, the Court ruled that Muslim husband is liable to make provision for the future of wife even after Iddat period. E. In Sarla Mudgal v. UOI, the Court said that Article 44 is based on a concept that there is no necessary relation between religion and personal Law in civilized society. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, D and E only
(2) B, D and E only
(3) B, C, D and E only
(4) A, C, D and E only
Answer: (2) B, D and E only
9. Which of the following is not a ground for issuance of Writ of Prohibition?
(1) Violation of the Principle of Natural Justice.
(2) Infringement of fundamental rights.
(3) An error of law apparent on the face of the record.
(4) Fraud.
Answer: (3) An error of law apparent on the face of the record.
10. In which one of the following case the Supreme Court held that", not all live-in-relationship are in the nature of marriage". The Apex Court referred to certain situations, in which the relationship between the parties would or would not amount to a relationship in the nature of marriage.
(1) D. Velusamy v. D. Patchaiammal
(2) Indra Sharma v. V.K.V. Sharma
(3) S. Khushboo v. Kanniammal
(4) Lata Singh v. Banwariwal
Answer: (2) Indra Sharma v. V.K.V. Sharma
11. Arrange the following chapter of the Companies Act, 2013 in their ascending order: A. Share Capital and Debentures B. Prospectus and Allotment of Securities C. Audit and Auditors D. Appointment and Qualification of Directors Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, A, D, C
(2) A, B, D, C
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) B, A, C, D
Answer: (4) B, A, C, D
12. Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below: LIST I LIST II A. In re Kerala Education Bill I. Legislative Privilege B. In re Keshav Singh II. Governor Power of Reserve Bill C. In re Presidential Reference (1999) III. Election Matter D. In re Special Reference No. 1 of 2002 IV. Appointment of Judges
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
13. Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below: LIST I LIST II A. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt I. Section 30, Wagering Agreement B. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. II. Section 20, Mistakes of Fact C. Hadley v. Baxendale III. Section 4, Communication when complete D. Phillips v. Brooks IV. Section 73, Breach of Contract
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Answer: (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
14. Arrange the following landmark decision in their ascending order relating to development of law of torts under concept of nervous stock: A. R V. Phillips B. Dulieu V. White C. Hambrook V. Stokes Brothers D. Bourhill V. Young Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, D, A
(2) B, D, C, A
(3) A, C, D, B
(4) D, B, C, A
Answer: (1) B, C, D, A
15. Revocation of driving license on grounds of "disease or disability" is mentioned under which of the following provision of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
(1) Section 14 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
(2) Section 15 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
(3) Section 16 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
(4) Section 17 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
Answer: (3) Section 16 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
16. The main focus of Marrakash (VIP) Treaty for Copyright are following: A. Providing access to published works for visually impaired person. B. India was the first country to ratify the treaty. C. The treaty does not have provision to permit cross border sharing of these accessible format works. D. It sets a norm for countries ratifying the treaty to have a domestic copyright exception/ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C and D only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and D only
Answer: (4) A, B and D only
17. Which one of the following would not amount to criminal liability for an omission?
(1) Where accused was having a duty to act and he failed.
(2) Where accused was having a duty arising out of contract and he failed, which causes loss to property.
(3) Where accused was having a duty arising out of a sense of religious obligation and he failed.
(4) Where accused was having a duty arising out of a relationship.
Answer: (3) Where accused was having a duty arising out of a sense of religious obligation and he failed.
18. Article 2 of the Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, 1951 deals with
(1) Principle of non-discrimination
(2) Principle of non-refoulment
(3) General Obligations of the Contracting States towards the refugees
(4) General Obligations of the refugees towards the country in which he finds himself
Answer: (4) General Obligations of the refugees towards the country in which he finds himself
19. Consider the following combination of and choose the correct combination: Provision of UDHR — Part III Indian Constitution A. Prohibition of Slavery, Slave trade etc. Article 4 - Article 24 B. Right against arbitrary arrest and detention, Article 9 - Article 22 C. Right to freedom of Movement, Article 13(1) - Article 19(1)(d) D. Right to life, liberty and security of person Article 3 - Article 21 E. Right to Effective Remedy Article 11 - Article 32 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C and E only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A, B, D and E only
Answer: (2) B, C and D only
20. Which of the following provision of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 empower the State government to designate any area within the State as water pollution control area after consultation or on recommendation of the State Board?
(1) Section 18
(2) Section 19
(3) Section 20
(4) Section 21
Answer: (2) Section 19
21. Consider the following statement relating to power of General Assembly under the United Nations charter? A. The resolution or declaration of the General Assembly are not binding upon the States. B. Under Article 2(7) of the United Nations Charter, the General Assembly may intervene in matters which are essentially within domestic jurisdiction of States. C. The General Assembly may make recommendation for promoting international cooperation in the political field. D. The General Assembly may make recommendation for progressive development of International Law and its classification. E. The General Assembly may recommend to promote International cooperation in the economic, social, cultural, education and health field etc. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, C, D and E only
(4) A, C and D only
Answer: (3) A, C, D and E only
22. Which one of the following jurist defined jurisprudence as the "Science of the first principles of the Civil Law"?
(1) Holland
(2) Bentham
(3) Salmond
(4) Julius Stone
Answer: (3) Salmond
23. The Constitutive Theory of State recognition has been advocated by which of the following jurist?
(1) Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Holland.
(2) Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Hall.
(3) Anzilotti, Hall and Fisher.
(4) Hall, Fisher and Brierly.
Answer: (1) Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Holland.
24. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Temple of Preah Vihear I. Justice, Equality and Conscience B. Mavrommati's Palestine Concession Case II. Principle of Estoppel C. R. v. Keyn III. Res Judicata D. Diversion of Water from Muese IV. Principle of Subrogation
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
25. Which one of the following jurist, defined International Law as, "the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilized States in their relations with one another"?
(1) Kelsen
(2) Oppenheim
(3) Brierly
(4) Anzilotti
Answer: (3) Brierly
26. Consider the following statement relating to separation of power under the USA Constitution A. The President cannot interfere in exercise of power by legislature. B. The President may exercise law making power by treaty making. C. The President has power to appoint Judges of the Supreme Court. D. The Congress may interfere with power of President through vote on budget. E. The Congress cannot interfere with judicial power by creating special courts. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) B, D and E only
Answer: (3) B, C and D only
27. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Ubberrima Fides I. Double meaning defamatory word B. Innuendo II. Reasonable sum of the money C. Quantum Merit III. Goods without an owner D. Bona Vacantia IV. Utmost good faith
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer: (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
28. Which one of the following is an exemption from direct or indirect liability of Internet Service Provides (ISP) and other intermediaries ?
(1) Digital Media Copyright Act
(2) Digital Millennium Copyright Act
(3) Digital Medium Copyright Act
(4) Digital Marketing Copyright Act
Answer: (2) Digital Millennium Copyright Act
29. Acording to Holfeld's concept of 'right' and its legal co-relatives, which of the following statements are correct? A. the co-relative of Liberty is No-Right B. the co-relative of Immunity is Power. C. the co-relative of Disability is Immunity D. the co-relative of Power is Liability E. the Contradictories Immunity is absence of power in another. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, D and E only
(2) A, B, D and E only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, D and E only
Answer: (1) A, C, D and E only
30. Which of the following notes are considered to be "Promissory Note" under the Negotiable Instrument Act. 1881 A. I promise to pay B ₹500/- seven days after my marriage to C. B. I promise to pay B or order ₹500/-. C. I promise to pay B ₹500/- first deducting thereout any money which he may owe me. D. I acknowledge myself to be indebted to B in ₹1,000/- to be paid on demand, for value received. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C only
(2) A and B only
(3) B and D only
(4) C and D only
Answer: (3) B and D only
31. Doctrine of 'Ijtihad' in Islamic Law means :
(1) It refers to accept the juristic opinion and verdict of a mujtahid (jurist) and to act upon it.
(2) It refers to the cases in which the total shares of the shares exceed the heritable property, the fractions are reduced to a common denominator.
(3) It means the independent or original interpretation of problems not precisely covered by the Quran.
(4) It refers on the assumptions of a lawful union between the parents of the acknowledged child.
Answer: (3) It means the independent or original interpretation of problems not precisely covered by the Quran.
32. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952) I. Viva Voice Test B. Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985) II. Transgender C. National Legal Service Authority v. Union of India III. Special Court for Speedier Trial (2014) D. Dinesh Trivedi v. UOI (1997) IV. Right to Know
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
33. The Doctrine of Social Solidarity was postulated by which of the following jurist?
(1) Eugen Ehrlich
(2) Rudolph Von Ihering
(3) Leon Duguit
(4) Herbert Spencer
Answer: (3) Leon Duguit
34. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. The Wakf Act I. 1956 B. The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act II. 1986 C. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on III. 1984 Divorce) Act D. The Family Court Act IV. 1995
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer: (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
35. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?
(1) Promissory Note.
(2) Bill of Exchange.
(3) A cheque.
(4) Fixed Deposit Receipt.
Answer: (4) Fixed Deposit Receipt.
36. Which of the following formulation do not incorporate Prof. A. V. Dicey's concept of Rule of Law?
(1) Absence or Excess of discretionary power
(2) Absence of discretionary power
(3) Equality before law
(4) Predominance of Legal sprit
Answer: (1) Absence or Excess of discretionary power
37. With regard to defamation which of the following is not correct.
(1) Under English Criminal Law, only libel has been recognized as offence.
(2) Under English law of torts, slander is actionable per se.
(3) In India, Criminal law does not make any distinction between libel and slander.
(4) Libel is addressed to the eye, slander to the ear.
Answer: (2) Under English law of torts, slander is actionable per se.
38. Which one of the following judgement of the Supreme Court has held that, "health care services rendered by Medical Practitioners fall under the ambit of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986"?
(1) Medicos Legal Action Group v. Union of India
(2) Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K Gupta
(3) Rohit Chaudhary v. Vipul Ltd.
(4) Faquir Chand Gulati v. Uppal Agencies Pvt. Ltd.
Answer: (1) Medicos Legal Action Group v. Union of India
39. Arrange in ascending order, the sequence of devolution of property Under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 in case of a male Hindu dying intestate : A. Upon the heirs being the relatives specified in class I of the schedule. B. If there is no heir of class I, then upon the heirs of class II of the schedule. C. If their is no agnate, then upon the cognates of the deceased. D. If their is no heir in class I and II, then upon the agnates of the deceased. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, D, C
(2) B, A, C, D
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) A, C B, D
Answer: (1) A, B, D, C
40. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted by the Parliament under which of the following provision? (1) Article 252
(1) of the Constitution.
(2) Article 253 of the Constitution.
(3) Environment Protection Act, 1986.
(4) Article 249 of the Constitution.
Answer: (2) Article 253 of the Constitution.
41. In which of the following case the Supreme Court went on to hold that the "width of power test" or direct impact and effect test" should be used to see, if a constitutional amendment violates the basic structure of the Constitution.
(1) Kesavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala (1973)
(2) Ashok Thakur v. UOI (2005)
(3) In re Presidential reference Case (1999)
(4) Supreme Court Advocate on Record Association v. UOI (2016)
Answer: (4) Supreme Court Advocate on Record Association v. UOI (2016)
42. Arrange the following advisory opinion of the Supreme Court under Article 143(1) in their ascending order: A. In re the Sea Custom Act B. In re Special Court Bill C. In re Keshav Singh D. In re Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, A, C, B
(2) A, D, C, B
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) A, C, D, B
Answer: (1) D, A, C, B
43. The board of directors of every listed company and such other class or classes of companies as may be prescribed are required to constitute, an Audit committee under which of the following provision of the Companies Act, 2013?
(1) Section 178 of the Companies Act, 2013
(2) Section 180 of the Companies Act, 2013
(3) Section 183 of the Companies Act, 2013
(4) Section 177 of the Companies Act, 2013
Answer: (4) Section 177 of the Companies Act, 2013
44. Consider the following statement relating to functions of NHRC under Protection of Human Right Act, 1993. A. NHRC may visit any jail or other institution under control of the State Government without intimation to State Government. B. Undertake and promote research in field of Human Rights. C. NHRC cannot intervene in any proceeding relating to violation of Human Rights. D. Review the factor including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of Human Rights. E. NHRC cannot enquire into any matter which is pending before a State Commission or any other commission duty constituted under any law. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and D only
Answer: (3) B, D and E only
45. Arrange the following decision of ICJ under contentious jurisdiction in their ascending order: A. Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case B. The Carfu Channel Case C. The Asylum (Colombia v. Peru) Case D. Minquiers and Ecrehes (France v. UK) Case Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, A, D
(2) C, B, A, D
(3) B, A, C, D
(4) D, B, C, A
Answer: (1) B, C, A, D
46. "Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the law. This duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages" this definition is attributable to which of the following jurist?
(1) Salmond
(2) Winfield
(3) Austin
(4) Fraser
Answer: (2) Winfield
47. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Principle of Reciprocity I. Article 36(1) of ICJ B. Voluntary Jurisdiction II. Article 36(2) of ICJ C. Transferred Jurisdiction III. Article 65 of ICJ D. Advisory Jurisdiction IV. Article 36(5) of ICJ
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer: (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
48. Arrange the following cases of the Supreme Court on Sentence of Death in their ascending order: A. Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP B. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab C. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab D. Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP E. Mohinder Singh v. State of Punjab Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, C, B, A, E
(2) A, C, D, E, B
(3) A, D, B, C, E
(4) D, A, C, B, E
Answer: (4) D, A, C, B, E
49. Which of the following is not part of main tenets of Savigny's theory of Law?
(1) Law is based on people's consciousness
(2) Law has conscious organic growth
(3) Law develop like language
(4) Popular sprit of the people reflected in 'Volksgeist'
Answer: (2) Law has conscious organic growth
50. Which one of the following cases distinguish between an offer and invitation to receive offers?
(1) Balfour v. Balfour, (1919)
(2) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Datt, (1913)
(3) Harvey v. Facey, (1893)
(4) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co., (1893)
Answer: (3) Harvey v. Facey, (1893)
51. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Some Reflections in Jurisprudence I. C. G. Keeton B. Elementiae Philosophiae II. Hobbes C. Elements of Jurisprudence III. Julius Stone D. Elementary Principles of Jurisprudence IV. Holland
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
52. Which one of the following adoption is valid under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?
(1) 'Amit', a Hindu male adopted 'Sunny', aged 10 years in 1986. 'Sunil', a son was born to his wife in 1987. 'Amit' cancelled the adoption of 'Sunny' in 1988 and informed him that he is no more to be known to be his son.
(2) Albert, a citizen of U.S.A. adopts, an abandoned child who is being brought up in an orphanage in India.
(3) Kamini, a Hindu widow aged 23 years adopts her brother's daughter aged 2 1/2 years.
(4) Kamla, was living separately from her husband from last 6 years, and she adopted a girl aged 3 years.
Answer: (3) Kamini, a Hindu widow aged 23 years adopts her brother's daughter aged 2 1/2 years.
53. As per the Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, wich of the following is not an essential elements of a contingent contract?
(1) There must be a valid contract to do or not to do something.
(2) Such act or abstinence must depend on the happening or non-happening of the uncertain event.
(3) An Uncertain event non-necessarily collateral to the contract.
(4) The event should not be at the discretion of promisor.
Answer: (3) An Uncertain event non-necessarily collateral to the contract.
54. There shall be an abuse of dominant position, if an enterprise or a group: A. Imposes directly or indirectly, unfair or discriminatory condition in purchase or sale of goods. B. Limits or restricts production of goods in the market to the prejudice of consumer. C. Indulge in practice or practices resulting in denial of market access. D. The enterprise entered into a combination which causes an adverse effect on competition within the relevant market. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) B and D only
(4) A, B and C only
Answer: (4) A, B and C only
55. The UN Conference on Human Environment held at Stockholm in 1972 incorporates "Assimilative Capacity Principle" under which of the following Principle?
(1) Principle 6
(2) Principle 9
(3) Principle 13
(4) Principle 14
Answer: (1) Principle 6
56. Arrange the following cases of the Supreme Court on Right to Privacy in their ascending order : A. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu B. Kharak Singh v. State of UP C. Govind v. State of M.P. D. Malak Singh v. State of Punjab E. PUCL v. UOI Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) E, A, D, C, B
(2) B, C, A, D, E
(3) B, C, D, A, E
(4) C, B, D, E, A
Answer: (3) B, C, D, A, E
57. The modern doctrine of judicial review is ascribed to which of the following case ?
(1) Dr. Borham's Case
(2) Marbury v. Madison
(3) Gideon v. Wainwright
(4) Berger Congress v. The Supreme Court
Answer: (2) Marbury v. Madison
58. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. The Genocide Convention I. 1953 B. Convention on Crime of Apartheid II. 1948 C. Convention against Torture III. 1984 D. Convention on Political Rights of Women IV. 1973
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
59. In times of Emergency, Parliament may vote a lump sum without allocating it to any particular object, when demand cannot be stated with usual details under Article 116(1) (b) of the Constitution is called which of the following?
(1) Exceptional Grant
(2) Votes of Credit
(3) Vote on Account
(4) Supplementary Grants
Answer: (2) Votes of Credit
60. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Borwn v. Board of Education I. One Man One Vote B. Plessey v. Ferguson II. Right of Accused during interrogation C. Reynolds v. Sims III. Equal but not separation D. Miranda v. Arizona IV. Separate but equal
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
61. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Right against Public Hanging I. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administation B. Right against Delayed Execution II. Charles Gurumukh Sobhraj v. Delhi Administration C. Right against Bar Fetters III. Attorney General of India v. Lakhma Devi D. Right against Solitary Confinement IV. T. V. Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
62. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. 'Agent' and 'Principal' I. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 B. 'Bailment' II. Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 C. Contract of Indemnity III. Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 D. Contract of Guarantee IV. Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Answer: (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
63. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the impact of dissolution of House of people on Business pending in house? A. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses as per Article 107(5) B. A contempt proceedings pending in House lapses C. A Bill passed in the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse as per Article 107(5) D. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse E. A Bill passed by both houses but pending assent by the president does not lapse. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and D only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, D and E only
(4) A, B and E only
Answer: (3) A, D and E only
64. Hari Prasad, died by a sudden heart attack without making any will. Arrange the following as per the class of heirs who would inherit his property as per the rule of succession A. Brother B. Sister's Son C. Son of a pre-deceased Son D. Father Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, A, C, B
(2) C, D, A, B
(3) A, D, C, B
(4) D, C, A, B
Answer: (2) C, D, A, B
65. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Venkatagiri Sarees I. Madhya Pradesh B. Muga Silk II. Gujarat C. Patan Patola III. Assam D. Chanderi Silk IV. Andhra Pradesh
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
66. Which of the following is/are attributable to Ihering theory of Legal Right? A. A right is an inherent attribute of the human will. B. A right is based on sovereign power of the State. C. A subjective right is mere metaphysical abstraction D. A legal right is legally protected interest. E. The main object of law is protection of human interests and to avert a conflict between their individual interest. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) D and E only
(4) C and E only
Answer: (3) D and E only
67. Arrange the following International Organization in ascending order of their establishment: A. International Tele-Communication Union B. World Intellectual Property Organization C. International Finance Corporation D. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development E. Food and Agricultural Organization Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, A, B, C, E
(2) E, D, A, C, B
(3) A, E, D, B, C
(4) B, C, E, D, B
Answer: (2) E, D, A, C, B
68. Which of the following doctrine states that, "It is duty of a State to continue diplomatic relations with States without regard to revolutionary changes"?
(1) Tobar Doctrine.
(2) Estrada Doctrine.
(3) Stimson Doctrine.
(4) Hallestein Doctrine.
Answer: (2) Estrada Doctrine.
69. Which of the following jurist denies international law, the legal character and calls it as the "Vanishing point of Jurisprudence"?
(1) Pufendorf
(2) Bentham and Hobbes
(3) Sir Thomas Holland
(4) Hart and Brierly
Answer: (3) Sir Thomas Holland
70. "You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omission which you can reasonably forsee would be likely to injure your neighbor" The above statement is attributed to which one of the following ?
(1) Lord Derby in Campbell v. Paddington
(2) Blackburn J. in Rylands v. Fletcher
(3) Lord Macmillan in Heaven v. Pender
(4) Lord Atkin in Donoghue v. Stevenson
Answer: (4) Lord Atkin in Donoghue v. Stevenson
71. Arrange the following in chronological order of their enactment: A. The Anti-Hijacking Act. B. Diplomatic Relations (Vienna Convention) Act. C. Anti-Apartheid (United Nations Convention) Act. D. Genocide Convention. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, C, A, B
(2) D, B, C, A
(3) C, B, D, A
(4) B, C, D, A
Answer: (2) D, B, C, A
72. "The women have a vital role in environment management and development and full participation of women is essential to active sustainable development" was laid down in which one of the following Principle of Rio Declaration, 1992?
(1) Principle 20
(2) Principle 21
(3) Principle 23
(4) Principle 24
Answer: (1) Principle 20
73. Any Muslim husband who pronounces talaq upon his wife shall be punished under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Marriage) Act, 2019 with
(1) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(2) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(3) Either Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years or fine
(4) Either imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years or fine
Answer: (2) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
74. Arrange the following landmark decision of the Supreme Court in matter relating to different aspects of Environment in their ascending order: A. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M. V. Nayudu B. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Assoiciation C. Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI D. S. Jagannath v. UOI E. UP Pollution Control Board v. Modi Distillery Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) E, A, D, C, B
(2) C, D, A, B, E
(3) E, C, D, A, B
(4) B, A, C, D, E
Answer: (3) E, C, D, A, B
75. Arrange the following statutory enactment on environment in their ascending order: A. Forest Conservation Act, B. Indian Forest Act, C. Wildlife Protection Act, D. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, E. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, D, E, A, B
(2) B, D, C, E, A
(3) C, D, B, A, E
(4) B, C, D, A, E
Answer: (4) B, C, D, A, E
76. Under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, Under Section 2(8), which of the following is not included in definition of "body corporate" ?
(1) Company Under Section 2(20), Company Act, 2013.
(2) A Company incorporated outside India.
(3) A Corporation Sole.
(4) A Limited Liability Partnership incorporated outside India.
Answer: (3) A Corporation Sole.
77. Which one of the following is not a ground for opposition proceedings to grant of patent, under patent Act, 1970.
(1) That the invention so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification has been published before the priority date of the claim.
(2) That the complete specification does not disclose, the source of geographical origin of manufactured material used for the invention.
(3) That the subject of any claim of the complete specification is not an invention within the meaning of the Patent Act, 1970
(4) That the applicant for the patent wrongfully obtained the invention.
Answer: (2) That the complete specification does not disclose, the source of geographical origin of manufactured material used for the invention.
78. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. R. v. Riley I. Gold Rings Case B. South Staffordshire Waterworks Co. v. Sharman II. Lamb Case C. Cartwright v. Green III. Chimney Cleaner's Case D. Armory v. Datmirie IV. Desk Repairing Case
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer: (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
79. The constitution of Biodiversity Management Committees is provided under which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?
(1) Section 41
(2) Section 51
(3) Section 52 A
(4) Section 53
Answer: (1) Section 41
80. Arrange the following offences against the State under Indian Penal code, 1860 in ascending order: A. Sedition B. Waging, or attempting to wage war against the Government of India C. Public Servant voluntarily allowing prisoner of State or war to escape D. Waging war against any Asiatic power in alliance with the Government of India Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, A, C, D
(2) A, C, B, D
(3) C, B, D, A
(4) B, A, D, C
Answer: (4) B, A, D, C
81. Arrange the following Treaties/Convention in Chronological Order: A. Trade mark Law Treaty B. Brussels (Satellite) Convention C. Budapest Treaty D. Rome Convention Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D, A
(3) B, A, D, C
(4) D, B, C, A
Answer: (4) D, B, C, A
82. Which of the following is/are attribute to H.L.A. Hart's theory of Conception of Law? A. Primary rules confer power and secondary rules are duty imposing. B. Secondary rules enable the legislator to modify their policies according to the needs of the society. C. The validity of law is to be tasted on the basis of rule of recognition. D. Moral judgement can be defened by rational argument evidence or proof. E. Legal system must concern with both law as "it is" and "as of ought to be". Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and E only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) B, C and D only
Answer: (3) B and C only
83. In which of the following case Marshall C. J. of USA Supreme Court remarked that, "The Constitution we are expounding is intended to endure for ages to come and consequently, to the adopted to the various crises of human affairs".
(1) Mcculoch v. Maryland
(2) Marbury v. Madison
(3) Dr. Bonham's Case
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) Mcculoch v. Maryland
84. Arrange the chapters of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in ascending order (first to last) as mentioned in the Bare Act: A. Chapter on General exceptions B. Chapter on Offences against woman and child C. Chapter on Offences against the Human Body D. Chapter on Punishments E. Chapter on Offences against the property Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, A, B, C, E
(2) E, D, B, A, C
(3) A, B, D, C, E
(4) D, A, E, B, C
Answer: (1) D, A, B, C, E
85. Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Act of a Child under Seven years of age I. Section 76 of IPC B. Act likely to cause harm done without criminal II. Section 85 of IPC intention to prevent other harm C. Mistake of fact III. Section 82 of IPC D. Act of a person incapable of judgement by reason of IV. Section 81 of IPC intoxication against his will.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
86. Consider the following statement relating to import and export of Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989? A. Import and Export of hazardous waste not permissible under Rule 11. B. Import and Export of hazardous waste permissible for recycling and reuse. C. An occupier importing and exporting hazardous waste has to provide information in Form 5A. D. An occupier importing and exporting hazardous waste shall comply with Basel Convention. E. The ministry of Environment and Forest is nodal Ministry to deal with trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C and D only
(2) A, C, D and E only
(3) A, B, D and E only
(4) B, C and E only
Answer: (3) A, B, D and E only
87. 'A' purchase a horse from 'B'. 'A' needs the horse for riding but he does not mention this to 'B'. The horse is not suitable for riding but is suitable only for being driven in a carriage. 'A' can A. 'A' can return the horse under implied conditions as to quality or purpose under Section 16 of the sale of Goods Act. B. 'A' can neither reject the horse nor can he claim any compensation from B. C. The situation is covered under the rule contained in the maxim caveat emptor. D. The situation is covered under exception mentioned under 16(1) dealing with implied conditions of the fitness of the goods for any particular purpose. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) A and D only
Answer: (2) B and C only
88. Arrange the following landmark decision on the Concept of Lifting the Corporates Veil in ascending order: A. LIC, India v. Escorts Ltd. B. Singer India v. Chandra Mohan Chaddha C. In re R. G. Films Limited D. Connors Brothers v. Conners E. Daimler Co. Ltd. v. Cotinental Tyre and Rubber Company Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) E, D, C, A, B
(2) D, E, C, A, B
(3) E, C, D, B, A
(4) D, E, B, C, A
Answer: (1) E, D, C, A, B
89. Following Marks are allowed to be registered under the Trademark Act, 1989 in India A. The shape of a light bulb, where the shape functions to make the bulb more energy efficient B. The term 'Icy Freeze' for the Ice Cream C. The term 'Semiclo' for food processor D. The term 'Matokla' for coffee Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and D only
Answer: (3) C and D only
90. Arrange the following Intellectual Property Laws in Chronological order A. The Trade Marks Act B. The Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act C. The Patent Act D. The Biological Diversity Act Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, A, D
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) A, C, D, B
(4) C, A, B, D
Answer: (4) C, A, B, D
Comprehension passage — for Questions 91 to 95
An academic question raised time and again is whether the Indian Constitution can be characterized as Federal. According to Wheare, the Constitution of India is 'quasi-federal' and not strictly federal. Jennings has characterized it as a "federation with strong centralizing tendency" Austin described it as "Co-operative federation". In West Bengal v. UOI, the Supreme Court projected the traditional view of federalism and characterized the Indian Constitution as not being true to any traditional pattern of federalism. On the other hand, Subba Rao, J. in his bid to bolster the position of the States against the centre, took to the extreme view of competitive and dual federalism which has been long discarded in older federation. In State of Rajasthan v. UOI, Beg, CJ, said, the extent of federalism in it is largely watered down by the needs of progress and development of a country which has to nationally integrated, politically and economically coordinated and socially, intellectually and spiritually uplifted. In S. R. Bommai v. UOI, Ahmadi J. described the Indian Constitution following K. C. Wheare as "quasi federal" because it is mixture of the federal and unitary elements, learning more towards the latter, Sawant J. observed "Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and are part of basic structure". Justice Reddy, has observed, the fact that under the scheme of our Constitution greater power is conferred upon the cantre vis-a-vis the States do not mean that States are mere appendages of the Centre. Within the sphere allotted to them, the State are supreme and the center cannot tamper with their power. More particularly the Court should not adopt an approach, an interpretation, which has the effect of or tends to have effect of whittling down the power reserved to the States. Federalism in India is not a matter of administrative convince but are of the principle. Accordingly, in Bommai case, the Supreme Court has developed a more balance approach to Article 356 of the Constitution.
91. Which of the following jurist has characterized the Indian Constitution as Federation with strong centralizing tendency?
(1) K. C. Wheare
(2) Nicholas
(3) Jennings
(4) Austin
Answer: (3) Jennings
92. The subject matter with respect to which the Union Parliament and State Legislative shall have power to make law is provided the which of the following schedule of the Constitution?
(1) Fifth Schedule
(2) Sixth Schedule
(3) Seventh Schedule
(4) Twelve Schedule
Answer: (3) Seventh Schedule
93. Which one of the following is not feature of Federal Constitution?
(1) Separation of Power
(2) Division of Power
(3) Written and Rigid Constitution
(4) Supremacy of the Court
Answer: (1) Separation of Power
94. The proper course for testing the strength of the ministry was holding the test on the floor of the house, except in cases where the holding of the floor test was considered not possible for reasons given in writing, was laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case:
(1) State of Rajasthan v. UOI
(2) S. R. Bomnai v. UOI
(3) Rameshwar Prasad v. UOI
(4) State of West Bengal v. UOI
Answer: (2) S. R. Bomnai v. UOI
95. The provisions of failure of Constitutional machinery of the States is provided the which of the following provision of the Constitution?
(1) Article 355
(2) Article 352
(3) Article 356
(4) Article 360
Answer: (3) Article 356
Comprehension passage — for Questions 96 to 100
Until 2015, if you sang "Happy Birthday to you" to your child, you were a copyright infringer, at least that's what Warner/Chappell Music Inc. would have had you believe. The music publishing company had been charging filmmakers and restaurants for the use of the song in movie scenes and birthday parties for decades. In his situation comedy Sports-Night, writer and producer Aaron Sorkin wrote an entire episode about one of the character getting a fictional television network in big legal trouble for singing "Happy Birthday to you" to another on the air. It turns out that song was in the "Public domain", namely that collection of works and expressions that exist beyond the reach of copyright ownership and thus serve as a cultural "common" for all of humanity to use and reuse. No one had ever checked on the matter before about 2010. People just took Warner/Chappell word that the company owned the copyright to the song. It had been earning up to $2 million per year from royalties on the song. In 2010 law professor Robert Brauneis published the results of an extensive investigation of the copyright status of the song and found that, among other technical problems with copyright claim, the song on copyright expired in 1982. As a result of the research by Brauneis, Warner/Chappell faces a lawsuit in an attempt to recover millions of dollars that people have paid to the company for permission to use the song. In 2015 a U.S. Federal court ruled that the song is in public domain, with the court ruling an important part of our culture has been restored to the commons. (250 words)
96. In cases of offences of infringement of copyright the jurisdiction to try the offence vests with
(1) Commercial courts
(2) District Magistrate
(3) Metropolitan Magistrate of the Second Class
(4) Metropolitan Magistrate of the First Class
Answer: (4) Metropolitan Magistrate of the First Class
97. Which one of the following act constitutes infringement of the copyright
(1) The reading or recitation in public from a published literary or dramatic work for commercial purpose.
(2) The reproduction of any work for the purpose of a judicial proceedings or for the purpose of a report of a judicial proceedings.
(3) The reproduction of any work by a teacher or a pupil in the course of instruction.
(4) The making of a three dimensional object from a two-dimensional artistic work, for a purpose of industrial application.
Answer: (1) The reading or recitation in public from a published literary or dramatic work for commercial purpose.
98. The term of Copyright in published musical work under the Copyright Act, 1957 is?
(1) Copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the date of release of song.
(2) Copyright shall subsist until 25 years from the date of release of song.
(3) Copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the beginning of the calendar years next following the year in which author dies.
(4) Copyright shall subsist until 25 years from the beginning of the calendar years next following the year in which author dies.
Answer: (3) Copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the beginning of the calendar years next following the year in which author dies.
99. What is the "Public Domain" in the context of copyright?
(1) Works that are owned by the public
(2) Works that are free to use without attribution
(3) Works for which copyright has expired or been waived
(4) Works that are published on the internet
Answer: (3) Works for which copyright has expired or been waived
100. The owner in case of Musical Work is
(1) The producer of the musical work
(2) The composer of the musical work
(3) The singer of the musical work
(4) The lyricist of the musical work
Answer: (2) The composer of the musical work
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After the objection window closes tonight, NTA will place the challenges before subject experts. Where an objection is accepted, the key is revised; where a question is found defective, it may be dropped. The final answer key is then published and the result is prepared on its basis. Candidates should watch ugcnet.nta.nic.in and the NTA website for both.
Qualifying candidates are considered for Assistant Professor and, subject to age and score, for Junior Research Fellowship. The JRF cut-off is invariably higher than the Assistant Professor cut-off, and both are declared subject-wise and category-wise once results are finalised.
Disclaimer: This post reproduces the UGC-NET June 2026 Paper II (Law) question paper with the correct responses marked in accordance with the provisional answer key published by the National Testing Agency on 16 August 2026, and is provided for study and self-evaluation only. It is not an official publication and has no connection with the National Testing Agency or the University Grants Commission. The answer key is provisional and is liable to revision after the challenge process; answers may change and questions may be dropped. Candidates must verify every answer, their recorded responses, dates and deadlines against the official portal ugcnet.nta.nic.in before acting on anything stated here, and must submit any challenge through the official candidate login only. Scores calculated from this post are indicative and are not a statement of result. Please read our Disclaimer for more details.
