Prepared by Akinchan Aggarwal, Advocate — B.A. (Hons.) Gold Medalist, LL.B. (University Rank 2), LL.M. (Dispute Resolution), UGC-NET, Ph.D. (Pursuing)
This post sets out the complete question paper of the All India Bar Examination XX — Set Code A, conducted by the Bar Council of India on 30 November 2025. All one hundred questions appear in order, each followed by the answer and then an explanation of the provision or authority behind it.
Please read this before you rely on the answers.
The paper is bilingual in the original. Only the English text is reproduced here, for readability.
The answers below are those given in the compiled copy of the paper from which this reproduction was made. They are not reproduced from the Bar Council of India's own key. The BCI released the provisional key on 3 December 2025 and the final answer key on 6 January 2026, and in that final key five questions were dropped, results being computed on 95 marks. Where anything turns on it, the official final key of the Bar Council of India governs, and candidates should check it directly.
The explanations are my own analysis. Question 54 carries two accepted options in this copy, and part of one option there is cut off in the source; that is noted at the question itself.
Paper at a Glance
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Examination | All India Bar Examination XX (AIBE 20) |
| Conducting Body | Bar Council of India |
| Date of Examination | 30 November 2025 |
| Set Code | A |
| Total Questions | 100 |
| Mode | Offline, pen and paper, open book |
| Duration | 3 hours 30 minutes |
| Marking | +1 per correct answer, no negative marking |
| Qualifying Marks | 40% (General/OBC), 35% (SC/ST) |
| Provisional Answer Key | 3 December 2025 |
| Final Answer Key | 6 January 2026 — 5 questions dropped, result computed on 95 marks |
How to use this paper
AIBE is an open-book examination, which makes it a test of navigation speed rather than recall. Cover the answer, attempt the question, and only then read the explanation — including on the questions you got right, because being right for the wrong reason is the habit that costs marks in the next paper.
Notice also how many questions here turn on a bare number: a period of limitation, a monetary ceiling, a maximum sentence. Those are look-up marks, and they are the cheapest marks in the paper if you have tabbed your bare acts properly.
The Question Paper
Correct options are ticked and shaded. Question numbering follows Set Code A.
Q1. If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide?
- (A) The bailiff is punishable as the order was invalid from the beginning
- (B) The bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalty
- (C) The bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order ✔
- (D) The bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 78 IPC protects an act done pursuant to the judgment or order of a Court while that judgment or order remains in force, provided the person acts in good faith believing the Court had jurisdiction. The later avoidance of the order for want of jurisdiction does not withdraw that protection.
Q2. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?
- (A) Seven
- (B) Ten
- (C) Fourteen ✔
- (D) Twenty-one
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Solitary confinement cannot exceed fourteen days at a time under the BNS scheme, with intervals between periods. The overall limit is further capped by reference to the length of the substantive sentence.
Q3. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?
- (A) Twenty-five thousand rupees
- (B) Fifty thousand rupees ✔
- (C) One lakh rupees
- (D) Seventy-five thousand rupees
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 fixed no-fault liability at ₹50,000 for death and ₹25,000 for permanent disablement. Compensation is payable without proof of negligence.
Q4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): , (A) (R) An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption. Reason (R) : Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's fault. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. / (A) , (R)
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (R) ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Assertion states an absolute 365-day rule, which is wrong. Section 2A of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 treats service as continuous despite interruption by sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike or lock-out not caused by the employee. So (A) is false and (R) is true.
Q5. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years. Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender. In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is correct ?
- (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
- (B) Only Statement 1 is true
- (C) Only Statement 2 is true ✔
- (D) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 216 IPC punishes harbouring an escaped offender, but the quantum is graded to the gravity of the original offence — not a flat seven years. The spousal exception is genuine. Hence only Statement 2 is correct.
Q6. If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita,2023?
- (A) Five years ✔
- (B) Seven years
- (C) Ten years
- (D) Three years
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 62 BNS punishes an attempt with up to one-half of the longest term provided for the offence. Half of ten years is five years.
Q7. A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case. primarily fall ?
- (A) Section 27 ✔
- (B) Section 125
- (C) Section 302
- (D) Section 482
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 27 CrPC confers jurisdiction in the case of juveniles: a person under sixteen, charged with an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life, may be tried by a Chief Judicial Magistrate or a court specially empowered under the Children Act.
Q8. Under Section 290 ( 1 ) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?
- (A) 15
- (B) 30 ✔
- (C) 45
- (D) 60
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 290(1) BNSS requires the application for plea bargaining to be filed within thirty days from the date of framing of charge. This is a change from the CrPC, which ran the period from the filing of the charge-sheet.
Q9. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of ₹ 4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?
- (A) One year
- (B) Two months ✔
- (C) Four months
- (D) Six months
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Where the fine does not exceed ₹5,000, the maximum simple imprisonment in default is two months. The BNS retains the graded default scale of the IPC.
Q10. According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate, required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor ?
- (A) 3 years
- (B) 5 years
- (C) 7 years ✔
- (D) 10 years
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 18 BNSS requires seven years of practice as an advocate for eligibility as Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor before a Court of Session.
Q11. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?
- (A) Only when they prove the guilt of the accused directly
- (B) Only when they form part of a dying declaration
- (C) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact ✔
- (D) When they are part of an admission made in writing
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Facts otherwise irrelevant become relevant if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact, or if by themselves or with others they make the existence or non-existence of such a fact highly probable or improbable.
Q12. What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- (A) The evidence must have been recorded in the presence of a jury.
- (B) The proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest. ✔
- (C) The evidence must have been published in a government gazette.
- (D) The evidence must have been corroborated by expert opinion.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 33 of the Evidence Act requires, among other conditions, that the earlier proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest, and that the adverse party had the right and opportunity to cross-examine.
Q13. During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?
- (A) Draft agreements between individuals
- (B) Personal diaries of government officials
- (C) Internal notes of a private company
- (D) Judicial and executive acts of public officers ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Public documents are documents forming the acts or records of the acts of sovereign authority, official bodies and tribunals, and of public officers — legislative, judicial and executive. Private diaries and internal company notes are private documents.
Q14. Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?
- (A) The statement must be made after the conspiracy has ended
- (B) The statement must involve unrelated matters of personal benefit
- (C) There must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists ✔
- (D) There must be proof that each conspirator personally committed the act
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The conspiracy rule requires the Court first to have reasonable ground to believe that two or more persons conspired. Only then does anything said, done or written by one in reference to the common intention become relevant against the others.
Q15. As per Section 30 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years' imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine ?
- (A) 1 year
- (B) 2 years
- (C) 6 months ✔
- (D) 3 months
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 30 CrPC caps default imprisonment at one-fourth of the term of imprisonment the Magistrate is competent to inflict, and it is to be in excess of the substantive sentence. On the key adopted, the answer is six months.
Q16. As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six ?
- (A) Article 39
- (B) Article 41
- (C) Article 47
- (D) Article 45 ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 substituted Article 45 so that the State endeavours to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete six years, Article 21A having taken over ages six to fourteen.
Q17. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?
- (A) Only the High Court exercising writ jurisdiction
- (B) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal ✔
- (C) The District Registrar of Property Records
- (D) The Police Authority of the concerned jurisdiction
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Where an execution order is challenged in appeal, it is the Appellate Court hearing the appeal that may direct the Court which passed the decree to take security. The power belongs to the appellate forum, not to any executive authority.
Q18. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicial membership of the Rule Committee ?.
- (A) Three Judges of the High Court ✔
- (B) Two Judges of the High Court
- (C) Four Judges of the High Court
- (D) Five Judges of the High Court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Rule Committee under Section 123 CPC includes three Judges of the High Court among its members.
Q19. According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyright infringement under Section 63 ?
- (A) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees ✔
- (B) Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to one lakh rupees
- (C) Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to three lakh rupees
- (D) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to five lakh rupees
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 63 of the Copyright Act, 1957 prescribes imprisonment of not less than six months extending to three years and fine of not less than fifty thousand rupees extending to two lakh rupees.
Q20. As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same?
- (A) Article 28(1)
- (B) Article 29 (1) ✔
- (C) Article 30 (2)
- (D) Article 32
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 29(1) guarantees to any section of citizens having a distinct language, script or culture of its own the right to conserve the same. Article 30 deals with minority educational institutions, which is a different right.
Q21. Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding ₹
- (A) Six weeks
- (B) Two months
- (C) Three months ✔
- (D) Six months
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under the proviso to Section 58(1) CPC, where the decretal sum exceeds ₹5,000, the maximum period of detention in civil prison is three months.
Q22. Which of the following situation falls within Section 58 (1) (b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, , 1908 58 (1) (b) ?
- (A) Decree for ₹ 1,800, detention up to three months
- (B) Decree for ₹3,500, detention up to six weeks ✔
- (C) Decree for ₹ 6,200, detention up to six months
- (D) Decree for ₹ 10,000, detention up to one year
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 58(1)(b) covers decrees for sums exceeding ₹1,000 but not exceeding ₹5,000, where detention may extend to six weeks. A decree for ₹3,500 with detention up to six weeks fits that clause.
Q23. A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement ?
- (A) Thirty days ✔
- (B) Fifteen days
- (C) Sixty days
- (D) Ninety days
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Order VIII Rule 1 CPC requires the written statement within thirty days from service of summons, extendable for recorded reasons up to ninety days in an ordinary suit.
Q24. How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A (1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed ? , 1908 14A (1)
- (A) Six years after final determination of the cause
- (B) Three years after the institution of the suit
- (C) Two years after final determination of the cause ✔
- (D) Five years from the date of decree
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) is deemed to continue until two years have elapsed after the final determination of the cause, unless changed.
Q25. According to Section 25 (a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause? , 1996 25 (a) ,
- (A) The tribunal adjourns the case indefinitely
- (B) The tribunal imposes a penalty but continues proceedings
- (C) The tribunal assumes the claim is admitted
- (D) The tribunal terminates the proceedings ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 requires the tribunal to terminate the proceedings if the claimant fails, without sufficient cause, to communicate his statement of claim.
Q26. If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?
- (A) One month
- (B) Two months
- (C) Six months
- (D) Three months ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, once the case is transmitted and decided, the marriage must be solemnized within three months of the decision.
Q27. What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order ?
- (A) Six months
- (B) One year ✔
- (C) Two years
- (D) Three years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 punishes breach of a protection order with imprisonment up to one year, or fine up to twenty thousand rupees, or both.
Q28. Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court ? (PIL) ?
- (A) Article 21
- (B) Article 32 ✔
- (C) Article 226
- (D) Article 14
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 32 confers the right to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights, and is the constitutional route for a PIL before that Court. Article 226 is the corresponding High Court power.
Q29. Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector?
- (A) Not less than 7 days
- (B) Not less than 60 days
- (C) Not less than 15 days ✔
- (D) Not less than 30 days
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 9 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 required the Collector's notice to specify a date for appearance not earlier than fifteen days from the date of publication of the notice.
Q30. Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?
- (A) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code
- (B) Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
- (C) Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ✔
- (D) Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 133 CrPC allows a Magistrate, on a report or other information, to make a conditional order for removal of a public nuisance. It is the provision through which a citizen can move the Magistrate on a matter of public interest.
Q31. According to Section 44AA (2) (i) of the Income tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds: 1961 44AA(2)(i) ,
- (A) ₹1,20,000 ✔
- (B) ₹50,000
- (C) ₹ 5,00,000
- (D) ₹10,00,000
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 44AA(2)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 requires books of account to be maintained where income from business or profession exceeds ₹1,20,000 in the specified years, the alternative threshold being turnover based.
Q32. Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period?
- (A) When the applicant has filed a request for early examination.
- (B) When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35. ✔
- (C) When the patent has already been granted by the Controller.
- (D) When the applicant has requested for an extension of time.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Where a secrecy direction is in force under Section 35 of the Patents Act, 1970, the application is not published even after expiry of the prescribed period. The direction is issued where the invention is relevant for defence purposes.
Q33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (A) (R) Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Gazette. Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always consist of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. / (A) , (R) ✔
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (R)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Assertion reflects the statutory right to apply to the High Court within two months. The Reason overstates the position by saying the Special Bench must always be exactly three judges regardless of the High Court's strength — that is not correct. So (A) is true and (R) is false.
Q34. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person. Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness. In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
- (B) Only Statement 1 is true
- (C) Only Statement 2 is true
- (D) Both the Statements are true ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Both statements are accurate. Admissions are relevant against the maker but cannot ordinarily be proved by him, subject to the recognised exception for statements as to a state of mind or body made when that condition existed and accompanied by conduct showing their truth.
Q35. Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961? , 1961 16 (ii)
- (A) House Rent Allowance granted by private companies
- (B) Entertainment Allowance granted to government employees ✔
- (C) Transport Allowance provided to all salaried persons
- (D) Leave Travel Allowance given for domestic travel
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 allows a deduction for entertainment allowance, and that deduction is available only to Government employees.
Q36. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1 : Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction. Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received. In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
- (B) Only Statement 1 is true
- (C) Only Statement 2 is true
- (D) Both the Statements are true ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 denies an obligation of payment where the instrument is without consideration, and provides for proportionate recovery by the immediate party where consideration fails in part.
Q37. In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. , I II Statement : Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person who was directly in charge of and responsible to the company at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is deemed guilty. However, a person may escape liability if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised due diligence to prevent it. Conclusions : I. A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act. II. An officer of a company can never escape liability once the company is found guilty of an offence. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Only Conclusion I follows ✔
- (B) Only Conclusion II follows / II
- (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow / (C) I II
- (D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows I II
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Conclusion I follows directly from the deeming provision covering both the company and the officer in charge. Conclusion II does not follow, because the statement itself preserves the defences of absence of knowledge and due diligence.
Q38. Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction? 24 (a) ,
- (A) 20
- (B) 40
- (C) 30 ✔
- (D) 50
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 allows a standard deduction of thirty per cent of the annual value of house property, irrespective of actual expenditure.
Q39. After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authorities finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According to the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case?
- (A) Loss due to falling land prices in the market
- (B) Loss due to cancellation of tenant agreements
- (C) Loss of employment in nearby areas
- (D) Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Act contemplates compensation for damage sustained by reason of the acquisition, including bona fide diminution of profits between the notification and the taking of possession. Market fluctuation and loss of employment in the area are not compensable heads.
Q40. According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases? 35A ,
- (A) ₹2,000
- (B) ₹10,000
- (C) ₹ 5,000
- (D) ₹3,000 ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 35A CPC caps compensatory costs for false or vexatious claims or defences at ₹3,000, or the limit of the Court's pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less.
Q41. According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer ?
- (A) When the acceptor prepares the letter of acceptance
- (B) When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor ✔
- (C) When it is delivered to the office of the proposer party
- (D) When the proposer acknowledges receipt in his records
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
Q42. Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture or manufacturing and there is no special contract between the parties, the landlord wonders how many days' notice he must legally give under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period ?
- (A) Five days' notice
- (B) Fifteen days' notice ✔
- (C) Forty-five days' notice
- (D) Sixty days' notice
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, as amended, requires fifteen days' notice to determine a lease for purposes other than agricultural or manufacturing, in the absence of a contract to the contrary.
Q43. According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 143 ?
- (A) Six months' imprisonment
- (B) Two years' imprisonment
- (C) One year's imprisonment ✔
- (D) Three years' imprisonment
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 permits summary trial, and empowers the Magistrate to pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding one year and a fine exceeding five thousand rupees.
Q44. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. , I II Statement : As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013 every company must, within fifteen days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties. ( DIN) Conclusions : I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized. / DIN II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Only Conclusion I follows
- (B) Only Conclusion II follows / I II
- (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow II ✔
- (D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows I II
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Both conclusions follow. Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013 penalises the company for failure to furnish the DIN, and the penalty provision extends to every officer of the company who is in default.
Q45. Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option. Statement 1 : Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, an authorized representative, or if it is considered necessary in the public interest. Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard.
- (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
- (B) Only Statement 1 is true ✔
- (C) Only Statement 2 is true.
- (D) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Statement 1 correctly reflects the grounds for suspension of a Digital Signature Certificate. Statement 2 is wrong, because the certificate cannot be suspended for a period exceeding fifteen days unless the subscriber has been given an opportunity of being heard.
Q46. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. , I II Statement : According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits 15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent. Conclusions : I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it. II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Only Conclusion I follows ✔
- (B) Only Conclusion II follows / II
- (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow II
- (D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows I II
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Conclusion I follows, since the statement expressly says the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent. Conclusion II does not follow, because the Government credits a fixed sum in addition to the fine realised from the employer.
Q47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (A) (R) Assertion (A) : The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape. Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable. In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false / (A) , (R) ✔
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true / (A) , (R)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Assertion is correct in that the BNS prescribes the death penalty for certain aggravated forms of gang rape. The Reason is wrong: the object is not to make all sexual offences non-bailable. So (A) is true and (R) is false.
Q48. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (A) (R) Assertion (A) : Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property. Reason (R) : The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him of his property. (R) : , 2023 In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) / (A) (R) , (R), (A) ✔
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false / (A) , (R)
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true / (A) , (R)
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Both propositions are true and the Reason explains the Assertion. Attachment following proclamation is coercive, designed to secure appearance; the statute therefore requires release of the property where the proclaimed person appears within the specified time.
Q49. Read the given Statements and choose the correct option. A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements: Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications. Statement 2 : An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record.
- (A) Only Statement 1 is true ✔
- (B) Only Statement 2 is true
- (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
- (D) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is true
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Statement 1 correctly reflects Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which requires an arbitration agreement to be in writing and recognises exchanges of letters, telex, telegrams and electronic communications. Statement 2 is wrong, as an arbitration agreement cannot rest on conduct alone.
Q50. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. , I II Statement : According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India. Conclusions : I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council. II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Only Conclusion I follows
- (B) Only Conclusion II follows / II
- (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow II ✔
- (D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows I II
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Both conclusions follow. The Special Committee discharges all functions of the State Bar Council, which includes pending disciplinary business, and the Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections.
Q51. Read the given statements and choose the correct option Statement 1 : Under the Income tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowed while computing income from house property. Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at 2,00,000, subject to conditions.
- (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
- (B) Only Statement 1 is true
- (C) Only Statement 2 is true
- (D) Both the Statements are true ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Section 24(a) allows a thirty per cent standard deduction on annual value, and Section 24(b) caps interest on borrowed capital for an acquired or constructed property at ₹2,00,000, subject to the prescribed conditions.
Q52. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (A) (R) Assertion (A) : Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son. and (A) : , 1956 , Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons. , ? (A) (A) (R) , (R), (A) In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A), / (A) (R) , (R), (A) ✔
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. / (A) , (R)
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (R)
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Both are true and the Reason explains the Assertion. Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, as amended in 2005, makes the daughter a coparcener by birth in her own right, with the same rights and liabilities in coparcenary property as a son.
Q53. As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term?
- (A) It becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.
- (B) It operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.
- (C) It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal. ✔
- (D) It suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: An acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. A reply which introduces a new term is a counter-proposal, and it operates to reject the original proposal, which cannot thereafter be accepted unless renewed.
Q54. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?
- (A) An oral promise by 'A' to pay 'B' ₹5000 for a service 'B' voluntarily rendered to 'A' last month. / 'A' 'B' 'A' ✔
- (B) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a … [option text is cut off in the source copy] ✔
- (C) A promise to subscribe ₹ 1 lakh to a public charitable fund.
- (D) A promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.
Answer: (A, B)
Explanation: Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 saves certain agreements from being void for want of consideration. A written and registered promise made out of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation falls within Section 25(1); a promise to compensate a person who has voluntarily done something for the promisor falls within Section 25(2). The key accompanying this paper accepts both (A) and (B).
Q55. In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of:
- (A) Ultra Vires
- (B) Excessive Delegation ✔
- (C) Conditional Legislation
- (D) Separation of Powers
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The doctrine of excessive delegation restrains the legislature from abdicating its essential legislative function by conferring uncontrolled power on the executive. The legislature must lay down the policy and the standard.
Q56. For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree?
- (A) The petition was filed more than six months after the discovery of the fraud.
- (B) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud. ✔
- (C) The fraud relates to the social status of the respondent's family.
- (D) The parties have not attempted reconciliation through a counselling center.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act framework on fraud bars relief where the petitioner has, with full knowledge of the facts constituting the fraud, lived with the other party as husband and wife after the fraud was discovered.
Q57. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
- (A) on the date of appointment of arbitrator.
- (B) on the date the arbitration agreement is signed.
- (C) on the date the request for reference is received by the respondent. ✔
- (D) on the date the arbitral tribunal issues notice.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that, unless otherwise agreed, arbitral proceedings commence on the date on which a request for the dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent.
Q58. Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air?
- (A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598 ✔
- (B) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746
- (C) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 3 SCC 596
- (D) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, (1985) 3 SCC 545
Answer: (A)
Explanation: In Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar the Supreme Court held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air. The Court also cautioned that PIL must not be used for personal or oblique motives.
Q59. Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of ' Absolute Liability' ?
- (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086 ✔
- (B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530
- (C) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
- (D) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
Answer: (A)
Explanation: M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, the Oleum Gas Leak case, laid down absolute liability for enterprises engaged in hazardous activity, departing from the exceptions available under Rylands v. Fletcher.
Q60. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?
- (A) Sahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees' State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346
- (B) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332
- (C) J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103 ✔
- (D) Union of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa the Supreme Court recognised that the rule against bias, nemo judex in causa sua, yields to the doctrine of necessity where no alternative forum or authority is available to decide the matter.
Q61. As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit I. has been finally decided. II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit. III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit. IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Select the correct answer.
- (A) I, II and III
- (B) II, III and IV
- (C) I, III and IV ✔
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (C)
Explanation: For res judicata under Section 11 CPC the former suit must have been finally decided, must relate to the same matter directly and substantially in issue, and must be between the same parties or those claiming under them. The proposition that the former suit can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit is not a requirement in that form.
Q62. Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment- debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the I. judgment-debtor, is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court, II. judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dishonestly transferred any part of his property. III. decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account. IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substantial amount of the decree and neglected to pay the same. Select the correct answer.
- (A) I, II and III
- (B) II, III and IV
- (C) I, III and IV ✔
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Detention in civil prison requires satisfaction on grounds such as likelihood of absconding, dishonest transfer after institution of the suit, a decree for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity, or means to pay coupled with neglect. Proposition II as framed refers to a transfer before institution of the suit, which does not fit the provision.
Q63. As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant I. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served. II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing. III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despite the fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer the plaintiff's claim. IV. without notice being served on the opposite party. Select the correct answer.
- (A) I and II ✔
- (B) I, II and III
- (C) I and IV
- (D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Order IX Rule 13 CPC allows an ex parte decree to be set aside where the summons was not duly served, or the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing. The proviso bars relief for mere irregularity in service where the defendant had notice and sufficient time to appear.
Q64. When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
- (A) Only if it is made voluntarily in writing
- (B) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate ✔
- (C) Only if it is supported by two independent witnesses
- (D) Only if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A confession made in police custody is inadmissible unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. The rule is a safeguard against custodial coercion and is carried forward from the Evidence Act into the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.
Q65. Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts
- (A) Section 38
- (B) Section 39 ✔
- (C) Section 36
- (D) Section 46
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 39 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 deals with opinions of experts, corresponding broadly to Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q66. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
- (A) A contracts, in writing, with B, for the delivery of indigo upon certain terms. The contract mentions the fact that B had paid A the price of other indigo contracted for, verbally, on another occasion. Oral evidence is offered that no payment was made for the other indigo. The evidence is admissible.
- (B) A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023, can be proved. ✔
- (C) A enters into a written contract with B to work certain mines, the property of B, upon certain terms. A was induced to do so by a misrepresentation of B as to their value. This fact may be proved.
- (D) A orders goods from B by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. B sues A for the price. A may show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The proviso to the rule excluding oral evidence permits proof of a separate oral agreement as to a matter on which the document is silent, but not one which contradicts an absolute written promise. An oral agreement postponing payment beyond the date written in the instrument varies its terms and cannot be proved. Statement (B) is therefore the incorrect one.
Q67. As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibited relationship" if: I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption. II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood. III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father's or mother's brother or of the grandfather's or grandmother's brother of the other. IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sister or of two brothers or of two sisters. Select the correct answer.
- (A) I, III and IV
- (B) III and IV
- (C) II, III and IV
- (D) I, II, III and IV ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 3(g) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 defines degrees of prohibited relationship, and all four propositions reproduce limbs of that definition, including relationships by half or uterine blood and by adoption.
Q68. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment?
- (A) Article 48A
- (B) Article 39A
- (C) Article 51A(g) / 51A(g) ✔
- (D) Article 51A (h) / 51A (h)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 51A(g) imposes the fundamental duty to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures. Article 48A is the corresponding Directive Principle addressed to the State.
Q69. The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the: I. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years. II. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years. III. husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years. IV. husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one year. Select the correct answer.
- (A) III and IV
- (B) I and II
- (C) I, II, III and IV
- (D) None of these ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 uses different periods: whereabouts not known for four years, imprisonment for seven years or upwards, failure to perform marital obligations for three years, and failure to maintain for two years. Every period stated in the propositions is wrong, so none is correct.
Q70. As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect to any particular electronic records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record and includes: I. telecom service providers. II. search engines. III. cyber cafes. IV. online-auction sites. Select the correct answer.
- (A) I and IV
- (B) I and II
- (C) I, II and IV
- (D) I, II, III and IV ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The definition of intermediary in Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 expressly includes telecom service providers, network service providers, internet service providers, web-hosting service providers, search engines, online payment sites, online-auction sites, online market places and cyber cafes.
Q71. Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable ?
- (A) Refusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8.
- (B) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11. ✔
- (C) Refusing to grant any measure under Section 9.
- (D) Refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 lists appealable orders. An order refusing to appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 does not figure in that list, and is therefore not appealable under Section 37.
Q72. Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of :
- (A) Not exceeding thirteen but not less than nine members.
- (B) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven members.
- (C) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members. ✔
- (D) Not exceeding seven but not less than three members.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 9A of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides that a legal aid committee shall consist of not exceeding nine but not less than five members.
Q73. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India ?
- (A) Section 35
- (B) Section 36 ✔
- (C) Section 37
- (D) Section 38
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 36 of the Advocates Act, 1961 confers disciplinary powers on the Bar Council of India, while Section 35 deals with the disciplinary powers of the State Bar Council.
Q74. Match List I (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: — List I: i. Act of God; ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria); iii. Statutory Authority; iv. Necessity. — List II: 1. Vaughan v. Taff Vale Rail Co. (1860) 5 H & N 679; 2. Kirk v. Gregory (1876) 1 Ex. D. 55; 3. Nichols v. Marsland (1876) 2 Ex. D. 1; 4. Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 205. Codes:
- (A) i-1; ii-2; iii-3; iv-4
- (B) i-2; ii-3; iii-4; iv-1
- (C) i-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2 ✔
- (D) i-4; ii-1; iii-3; iv-2
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Act of God is illustrated by Nichols v. Marsland; volenti non fit injuria by Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club; statutory authority by Vaughan v. Taff Vale Rail Co.; and necessity by Kirk v. Gregory. That yields i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2.
Q75. The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of :
- (A) a Chairperson and ten other members, or a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
- (B) a Chairperson and five other members.
- (C) a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed. ✔
- (D) a Chairperson and ten other members.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides that the Central Consumer Protection Council shall consist of a Chairperson and such other official or non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed.
Q76. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution ?
- (A) In re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC 956 AIR 1958 SC 956
- (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461 / , AIR 1973 SC 1461
- (C) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845 , AIR 1960 SC 845 ✔
- (D) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789 / , AIR 1980 SC 1789
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In In re: The Berubari Union the Supreme Court took the view that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. That position was departed from in Kesavananda Bharati, where the Preamble was held to be part of the Constitution.
Q77. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements ?
- (A) Article 249
- (B) Article 251
- (C) Article 253 ✔
- (D) Article 255
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 253 empowers Parliament to make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing treaties, agreements or conventions with other countries, and decisions of international bodies, notwithstanding the distribution of legislative powers.
Q78. In which of the following judgment / s was the issue of 'right to privacy' dealt with by the Supreme Court of India ? I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295) II. PUCL v. Union of India ( AIR 1997 SC 568) III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1 IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)
- (A) II, III and IV
- (B) II and III
- (C) Only III
- (D) I, II, III and IV ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: All four decisions engaged with privacy. M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh contained the observations that were reconsidered, PUCL dealt with telephone tapping, and Puttaswamy authoritatively held privacy to be a fundamental right under Article 21.
Q79. Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India ?
- (A) Executive action of the Union of India
- (B) Presidential proclamation, exercising constitutional power while issuing proclamation
- (C) Executive action of the Union of India, and then legislative enactment by the Parliament
- (D) Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India. ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Cession of Indian territory to a foreign State cannot be done by executive action alone. It requires a constitutional amendment, that is legislative action by Parliament, followed by executive action giving effect to it.
Q80. The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 of the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly. Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as 'judicial precedent' ?
- (A) No, because it is not considered as a judgment ✔
- (B) Yes, because it is considered as a judgment
- (C) No, because it is not pronounced in open court
- (D) Yes, because it is pronounced in open court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: An opinion rendered under Article 143 is advisory. It is not a judgment delivered in the exercise of adjudicatory jurisdiction between parties, and therefore is not a binding judicial precedent in the strict sense, though it carries great persuasive weight.
Q81. In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court, i.e., the High Court, has restrained publication of any news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing given order?
- (A) Power to issue the writ of mandamus
- (B) Power to issue the writ of prohibition
- (C) Inherent power ✔
- (D) Residuary power
Answer: (C)
Explanation: An order restraining publication of proceedings, where no express provision confers the power, is traceable to the inherent power of the Court to do what is necessary to secure the ends of justice and prevent prejudice to a fair trial.
Q82. The Supreme Court of India has declared that 'Right to Information' is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as source of the fundamental right given by the Supreme Court?
- (A) Article 19 (1) (b), Constitution of India 19(1)(b)
- (B) Right to Information Act, 2005
- (C) Article 19(1) (a), Constitution of India 19(1)(a) ✔
- (D) Article 19(1), Constitution of India and Right to Information Act, 2005, collectively
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The right to information has been located in the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a). The statute of 2005 gives machinery to a right that was already recognised as flowing from that Article.
Q83. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of "Validation of certain Acts & Regulations' ?
- (A) Schedule IX / IX ✔
- (B) Schedule III / III
- (C) Schedule V
- (D) Schedule X
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Ninth Schedule contains the validation of certain Acts and Regulations. After I.R. Coelho, laws placed in it after 24 April 1973 remain open to challenge on the touchstone of the basic structure.
Q84. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India : I. The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court. II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 32 may be granted. III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope. Select the correct answer.
- (A) I is false.
- (B) II is false. / II
- (C) III is false. / III
- (D) All Statements are true ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 32 does not itself prescribe who may approach the Court, nor does it identify the party against whom relief lies, and its language permits directions, orders or writs including those in the nature of the five named writs. All three statements are correct.
Q85. By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt Jurisdiction. What is true about the lower Judiciary in the same connection ?
- (A) Lower Judiciary has to bear with its contempt.
- (B) Lower Judiciary has to complain about its contempt to the Supreme Court of India.
- (C) Lower Judiciary can itself punish the contemnor for having caused its contempt.
- (D) The respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdiction the lower court falls. ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Courts subordinate to the High Court are not courts of record with their own contempt jurisdiction. Contempt of a subordinate court is dealt with by the High Court within whose jurisdiction that court falls.
Q86. The Supreme Court of India in R. K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for:
- (A) threatening judges and use of abusive language during proceedings.
- (B) filing false affidavits and making reckless allegations against judges.
- (C) interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness. ✔
- (D) circulating scandalous pamphlets against a sitting Chief Justice.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: R.K. Anand arose out of the BMW hit-and-run trial and a sting recording. The Court found the advocate guilty of interfering with the administration of justice by attempting to influence a witness.
Q87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: — List I: i. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages; ii. Punishment of bigamy; iii. Judicial separation; iv. Voidable marriages. — List II: 1. Section 10, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; 2. Section 12, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; 3. Section 17, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955; 4. Section 16, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Codes:
- (A) i-3; ii-4; iii-1; iv-2
- (B) i-4; ii-3; iii-2; iv-1
- (C) i-4; ii-3; iii-1; iv-2 ✔
- (D) i-1; ii-2; iii-4; iv-3
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages is Section 16; punishment of bigamy is Section 17; judicial separation is Section 10; voidable marriages is Section 12. That gives i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2.
Q88. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co- sureties ?
- (A) The creditor alone bears the unpaid portion of the debt
- (B) The debtor's family becomes liable for the unpaid amount
- (C) The co-sureties share the unpaid portion in equal contribution ✔
- (D) The entire unpaid portion is to be paid by the surety first approached
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 146 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that co-sureties are liable, as between themselves, to contribute equally to the unpaid part of the debt, in the absence of a contract to the contrary.
Q89. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff ?
- (A) When the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaintiff ✔
- (B) When the property is held as mortgaged asset of the plaintiff
- (C) When the property is held as lessee or sub- tenant of the plaintiff
- (D) When the property is held as co-owner in common with the plaintiff
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 allows recovery of specific movable property from a person in possession who is not the owner, where he holds it as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff, among other cases.
Q90. Read the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1 : Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States. Statement 2 : For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court, and references to “High Court” in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals. In the context of the above statements under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
- (B) Only Statement 1 is true
- (C) Only Statement 2 is true
- (D) Both the Statements are true ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. A Joint Administrative Tribunal exercises the same jurisdiction and powers for the States concerned, and for contempt purposes the Tribunal is equated with a High Court, references in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 being read accordingly.
Q91. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (A) (R) Assertion (A) : A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). (A) : Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed. In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A) ✔
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. / (A) , (R)
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (R)
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Both propositions are correct statements of Articles 109 and 110, but the Reason describes the subsequent procedure on recommendations by the Council of States; it does not explain why a Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People. So (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q92. A company, registered under The Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance? (A) ₹25,000
- (A) ₹25,000
- (B) ₹50,000 ✔
- (C) ₹75,000
- (D) ₹1,00,000
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Failure to file the declaration of commencement of business under Section 10A of the Companies Act, 2013 attracts a penalty of fifty thousand rupees on the company, with a separate penalty on every officer in default.
Q93. If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice?
- (A) By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term ✔
- (B) By applying punishment equal to the average of all possible offences
- (C) By leaving the choice of punishment to the prosecuting authority
- (D) By suspending the punishment until further clarification is made
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 72 IPC provides that where it is doubtful which of several offences the accused has committed, he is to be punished for the offence for which the lowest punishment is provided, if the same punishment is not provided for all.
Q94. Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs Y, a 16- year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is : 16- Y , X, Y , X
- (A) valid, since employers can change the holidays anytime by giving notice.
- (B) invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months. ✔
- (C) valid, since the adolescent is given a full day of rest every week.
- (D) invalid, only if the notice is not displayed in the establishment.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Act does not permit the weekly holiday, once fixed and notified, to be altered more than once in three months. Changing it after two months is therefore invalid.
Q95. Which person will not be treated as a consumer under the definition of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- (A) A person who purchases a refrigerator on instalments for home use.
- (B) A person who buys a television, partly paid and partly promised, for family use.
- (C) A person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose. ✔
- (D) A person who uses furniture bought by a relative with the latter's consent.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 excludes a person who obtains goods for resale or for any commercial purpose. Purchase on instalments, on deferred payment, or use by a person with the buyer's approval, all remain within the definition.
Q96. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (A) (R) Assertion (A) : The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death. Reason (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governor to commute or remit a death sentence under State law. In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). / (A) (R) , (R), (A)
- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. / (A) , (R) ✔
- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (R)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Assertion correctly reproduces Article 72. The Reason is wrong: the President's power does not nullify the Governor's power under Article 161, the two operating in their own spheres. So (A) is true and (R) is false.
Q97. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. , I II Statement : Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence, contacting the aggrieved person, alienating assets or stridhan without permission, or causing harm to her dependents. Conclusions: I. A protection order can cover not just physical violence but also financial and emotional aspects of domestic violence. II. The Magistrate has wide powers to restrict the respondent's conduct to safeguard the aggrieved person and her dependents. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which one of the following is correct ?
- (A) Only Conclusion I follows
- (B) Only Conclusion II follows / II
- (C) Both Conclusions I and II follow II ✔
- (D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows I II
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Both conclusions follow. A protection order under Section 18 extends beyond physical violence to communication, alienation of assets and stridhan, and harm to dependents, which shows the width of the Magistrate's power.
Q98. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licensing authority in applying for a driving license?
- (A) The place where the applicant has family ancestral property.
- (B) The place where the applicant has held a bank account for more than a year.
- (C) The place where the applicant votes in local body elections.
- (D) The place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business. ✔
Answer: (D)
Explanation: An application for a driving licence is made to the licensing authority having jurisdiction over the area in which the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business, or where the driving school is situated.
Q99. If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court?
- (A) Ten years of imprisonment
- (B) Twenty years of imprisonment ✔
- (C) Forty years of imprisonment
- (D) Fifty years of imprisonment
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 57 IPC provides that in calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life is to be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for twenty years. It is a rule of computation and does not convert a life sentence into a twenty-year sentence.
Q100. According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer?
- (A) Voluntary resignation from the post by the employee.
- (B) Dismissal of the employee due to misconduct at work.
- (C) Death or disablement of the employee due to accident or disease. ✔
- (D) Transfer of the employee to another department within the same organization.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The proviso to Section 4(1) of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 dispenses with the requirement of five years' continuous service where termination is due to death or disablement caused by accident or disease.
What this paper tells you about AIBE preparation
Three things stand out on a full read.
First, the transition to the new codes is only partial. This paper asks about the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, but it also asks squarely about the Indian Penal Code, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 — sometimes in adjacent questions. You cannot drop the old codes yet. You have to hold both, and know which one the question is actually asking about.
Second, the paper rewards the tabbed bare act. A large share of the questions is answered by finding one number: three months, fifteen days, thirty per cent, twenty years. None of that needs understanding; all of it needs speed.
Third, the reasoning formats are worth practising separately. Assertion–Reason and Statement–Conclusion questions recur throughout, and they are failed not on law but on logic — typically by candidates who accept a Reason that is true in itself but does not explain the Assertion, or who endorse a Conclusion that the passage does not support.
If you are preparing for the next cycle, the AIBE XXI Set D paper with answers and explanations on this site is the natural companion to this one, and the official AIBE XXI answer key with subject-wise analysis sets out how the Council has been distributing questions across subjects.
Disclaimer: The question paper reproduced above is the All India Bar Examination XX, Set Code A, conducted by the Bar Council of India on 30 November 2025. Only the English portion of the bilingual paper has been reproduced. The answers shown are those appearing in the compiled copy from which this reproduction was prepared and are not taken from the Bar Council of India's official key; the official final answer key dated 6 January 2026, in which five questions were dropped, shall prevail in case of any conflict. The explanations are the author's own analysis and are provided for study purposes only. Every care has been taken in transcription, but candidates should verify the text and the answers against the official material published by the Bar Council of India. This post is not legal advice and does not create any advocate-client relationship. Lawizard is not affiliated with the Bar Council of India. Please read our Disclaimer for more details.
